On: Thu, Dec 10, 2009 at 07:14:08PM -0700,Scott Rohling Wrote: } ahem .. as long as n >= 2 :-) } } Scott } } On Thu, Dec 10, 2009 at 5:43 PM, Schuh, Richard <rsc...@visa.com> wrote: } } > Hats off to Alan. He has, again, come through with a sensible answer, and a } > bit of history. Our MVS guys confirmed that there was no such thing defined } > in their world (but I would wager that they can, at most, vary n-1 cpus off } > of a system that has n).
No, applies even if n=1. If n=1, you can vary off n-1 = 0 processors. :-) -- Rich Greenberg N Ft Myers, FL, USA richgr atsign panix.com + 1 239 543 1353 Eastern time. N6LRT I speak for myself & my dogs only. VM'er since CP-67 Canines:Val, Red, Shasta & Casey (RIP), Red & Zero, Siberians Owner:Chinook-L Retired at the beach Asst Owner:Sibernet-L
