Sincere thanks to Aleksandar, Matthew, Victor, Eli and Nagaraj for this very 
helpful and very swift help! Your generosity is much appreciated.

Howard
 
> On Jun 4, 2024, at 5:46 AM, Matthew Kapstein <[email protected]> wrote:
> 
> 
> Dear Howard,
> 
> The questions you ask are large ones and a thorough answer would require 
> reference to large swathes of work on the Indian logical and epistemological 
> systems. For some broad indications that others may wish to fill in:
> 
> The Nyāyakos'a, p. 29, has a short entry on anavasthā, which is usually 
> treated as the technical designation for the regress. But in fact the problem 
> is very frequently invoked in philosophical works of the Vedānta and Buddhist 
> Madhyamaka traditions and elsewhere as well.
> 
> The issue of foundations has been central to recent discussions of Madhyamaka 
> critques of the nyāya schools, both Buddhist and non-Buddhist. But it has 
> been raised explicitly using the term "foundationalism" primarily in work on 
> Tibetan Madhyamaka. For a survey see here:
> https://www.academia.edu/109324532/Knowing_Illusion_Bringing_a_Tibetan_Debate_into_Contemporary_Discourse_Volume_I_A_Philosophical_History_of_the_Debate_and_Volume_II_Translations
> 
> Finally, the issue of svataḥ pramāṇa has figured prominently in recent work 
> on Mīmāṃsā, above all on Kumārila. I don't know what Caitanya's sources may 
> have been, but he and his disciples were no doubt drawing on well-established 
> philosophical currents.
> 
> hope this is at least a start,
> Matthew
> 
>> Dear Scholars,
>> 
>> Does the nyāya system speak about the problem of an infinite regress of 
>> proofs? Aristotle famously identifies and then avoids this problem through 
>> the notion of a self-evident foundation or starting point of knowledge. In 
>> Western epistemology, this strategy is often called foundationalism.
>> 
>> Is there anything at all similar or analagous in nyāya or other Indian 
>> schools? The Caitanya-caritāmṛta several times affirms that the Veda is 
>> ’self-evident’, svataḥ pramāṇa, but the term is not used there as a general 
>> or secular epistemic strategy. Is the CC simply repeating a well-known 
>> epistemic principle?
>> 
>> All help will be greatly appreciated.
>> 
>> Thanks!
>> Howard
>> 
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> 
> 


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