Folks,
In my personal view, while this is a nice theoretical problem, no
evidence has been presented that anyone building an implementation is
confused about it. For example, were there ever any interoperability
problems because someone did this wrong? Common sense would indicate
that IPv6 has the same "endianness" as IPv4.
I have hard time understanding why documenting this further this
would be a good use of anyone's time (i.e., individuals, IPv6 w.g.,
ADs, IETF, RFC-Editor, ....).
Bob
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