The voice-leading implies the stringing. One example that comes readily
to mind is the third measure of Up Merry Mates from A Pilgrimes Solace.
The lute part has in the bass (the only moving line), starting on the open
fifth course, C-D-E-F# leading to this chord:
__e__
__a__
_____
_____
_____
__a__
Dowland could have included the G on the fourth course without making it
difficult to play. His not doing so means either that he didn’t care that
the bass line dropped a seventh for no good reason, or that he assumed
octave stringing on the sixth course, supplying the middle G.
My two pennyworth - surely the bass line is going to drop a 7th anyway as
the previous four notes on the 5th course will be doubled in the octave
above if it is octave strung. Why put the G on the 6th course anyway if it
is readily available on the 4th.
What you will have with octave stringing is
c' d' e' f#'
c d e f# g
G
You could argue that the 5th course was in unisons and the 6th course
re-entrant on that basis.
The voice leading does not necessarily imply the stringing. These
idiocycracies are inherant in the instrument. Skips of a 7th are common in
baroque guitar music and are perfectly acceptable.
Unless I have misunderstood what you are saying.....
Monica
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