In other words, because the only two ethnic/cultural groups that had any
rhythm were invited to leave the premises at once. It was said that when
all the Jewish & Moorish doctors, scholars, scientists, and artists &
academics showed up on his doorstep, the Sultan of Turkey asked "Has the
King of Spain lost his mind?"
Lacking some rhythm myself, I do enjoy the all the great vihuela music a
lot- but even I have to sometimes "move" over to Italy & Germany for a
little jumping around.
Dan
On 5/4/2015 3:36 AM, Ron Andrico wrote:
Well, the first answer that springs to mind is because Spain had
recently kicked out all the dance musicians, who had moved to Italy.
They were left with a bunch of upwardly mobile courtiers (Milan), and
serious-minded priests with so much time on their hands that they
intabulated every piece of vocal polyphony they could put their hands
on.
Actually, there is quite a bit of dance music in Fuenllana's print,
some but much less in the other six published books. Also, there was
quite a bit of dance music evident in Naples, which was Spanish at the
time.
RA
> Date: Mon, 4 May 2015 09:29:52 +0200
> To: lute@cs.dartmouth.edu
> From: r.ba...@gmx.de
> Subject: [LUTE] Spain vs. Italy
>
> Hi all,
> In the early 1500s, why are dances so common in Italian lute music
and
> so rare in the vihuela rep. ?
> Thanks
> --
> Sent from my Android phone with GMX Mail. Please excuse my brevity.
>
>
> To get on or off this list see list information at
> http://www.cs.dartmouth.edu/~wbc/lute-admin/index.html
--
