Yes - you are right. We shouldn't judge the past by an inappropriate set of
criteria.
Spain has got a bad press in the English speaking world because most of us
study history from an English/Northern Europe point of view.
Queen Elizabeth I was a racist - want to expel all coloured people from
England. So was Shakespeare. Jews are always villains.
Monica briefly
----- Original Message -----
From: "ml" <man...@manololaguillo.com>
To: "LUTELIST List" <lute@cs.dartmouth.edu>
Sent: Monday, May 04, 2015 8:53 PM
Subject: [LUTE] Re: Spain vs. Italy
Spain was not an exception regarding free vs. conservative thinking. I
mean, Spain was not more conservative than England or France, in regard to
what is right or wrong in religion, morality (for instance sexuality.) and
so on. Fear was (and is) the explication of nearly everything.
Perhaps Jean Delumeau (La peur en Occident, Fayard, 1978) hits the nail
when he says, concluding his wonderful book, that Satan was seen
everywhere. He is the enemy, he inspires the turks, the witches, the
heresies, the plagues, etc. When the attention is focused on jews and
'moriscos' (that is what happens in Spain), the witches are not so closely
monitorized. In other european countries, not so much worried with jews,
heresies (here the protestants, there the catholics) were prosecuted
instead. Only two countries, Delumeau continues, "escaped from this
general fear: Poland and Italy. The latter perhaps because of being more
pagan than his neighbors (that was Erasmus' opinion), or because the
church was controlling it better than elsewhere. In any case, it seems
that Italy lost his mind because of these fears in a lesser degree than
other countries."
But. if we read Carlo Ginzburg's Il formaggio e i fermi. Il cosmo di un
mugnaio del '500 (1976), a seminal work in micro-history, Italy suffered
under the inquisition as well.
Galileo's case is of course very well known.
It's all too easy to project from our present time to that past.
Regards from Barcelona, dear lute friends. :-)
Manolo
El 04/05/2015, a las 19:27, Sean Smith <lutesm...@mac.com> escribió:
That's what I'm thinking, too. The very first piece in Dalza's book is
the Caldibi Castigliano and it certainly points to a refined and complex
idiom unlike anything else in his Ferrerese or Venetiana dance cycles.
Sean
On May 4, 2015, at 9:52 AM, Gary Boye wrote:
A word of caution here:
We are making judgements based primarily on the printed evidence (i.e.,
the 7 main vihuela tablatures); there was a great deal of music (most of
it!) that took place in Spain outside of these formal, published works.
Publishing was a big deal in the 16th century. Getting an imprimatur from
a conservative and literally Inquisitorial government was unlikely with a
large collection of dance music; much easier to play it conservative and
stick to sacred intabulations. The vihuela manuscripts hint at a wider
repertoire, as does the existence of guitar music from a later period.
Who knows what was happening on the streets, but the Inquisition wouldn't
have had much to do if everyone in Spain was a straight-laced as the
vihuela tablatures make it seem . . .
Gary
Dr. Gary R. Boye
Professor and Music Librarian
Appalachian State University
On 5/4/2015 12:37 PM, Dan Winheld wrote:
In other words, because the only two ethnic/cultural groups that had any
rhythm were invited to leave the premises at once. It was said that when
all the Jewish & Moorish doctors, scholars, scientists, and artists &
academics showed up on his doorstep, the Sultan of Turkey asked "Has the
King of Spain lost his mind?"
Lacking some rhythm myself, I do enjoy the all the great vihuela music a
lot- but even I have to sometimes "move" over to Italy & Germany for a
little jumping around.
Dan
On 5/4/2015 3:36 AM, Ron Andrico wrote:
Well, the first answer that springs to mind is because Spain had
recently kicked out all the dance musicians, who had moved to Italy.
They were left with a bunch of upwardly mobile courtiers (Milan), and
serious-minded priests with so much time on their hands that they
intabulated every piece of vocal polyphony they could put their hands
on.
Actually, there is quite a bit of dance music in Fuenllana's print,
some but much less in the other six published books. Also, there was
quite a bit of dance music evident in Naples, which was Spanish at
the
time.
RA
Date: Mon, 4 May 2015 09:29:52 +0200
To: lute@cs.dartmouth.edu
From: r.ba...@gmx.de
Subject: [LUTE] Spain vs. Italy
Hi all,
In the early 1500s, why are dances so common in Italian lute music
and
so rare in the vihuela rep. ?
Thanks
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