> On Aug 26, 2018, at 10:38 AM, Sean Smith <lutesm...@gmail.com> wrote: > > If we cannot hear the differences between the two instruments from a > recorded performance, what conclusions should we draw? Is the > difference more apparent when we are in the same room? Should we > suspect they have been mixed (deliberately? inadvertently?) to make > them more similar?
I might conclude 1) that Nigel’s taste in instruments leads him to own a vihuela that sounds like his six-course lute, 2) that Nigel has an ideal sound that he tries to get from both instruments, or 3) My ears aren't refined enough to detect the difference. The last seems unlikely, given the time I spend applying ear-refining lotion. To get on or off this list see list information at http://www.cs.dartmouth.edu/~wbc/lute-admin/index.html
