I'd be interested to know why "sicque" is objectionable by classical
standards; and if Ovid did use this phrase once in the _Fasti_, can it
really be called non-classical?  Rare, maybe, but not non-classical.  At
any rate, why should classical poets have avoided "sicque"?
Randi Eldevik
Oklahoma State University

On Fri, 26 Feb 1999, David Wilson-Okamura wrote:

> Date: Fri, 26 Feb 1999 09:13:07 +0000 (GMT)
> From: Don Fowler <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
> 
> In message <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>, Dan King
> <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> writes
> >I can't find it as yet, but Amores i.3.18 is rather similar, so it's
> >probably Ovid, but I'm pretty sure it's not Amores
> 
> On Fri, 26 Feb 1999, Leofranc Holford-Strevens wrote:
> > Neither have I found it yet, but what classical author writes 'sicque'?
> 
> Before Optatian, "sicque" is only Ovid Fasti 848, but it's the Ovidian use
> of que attaching direct speech. Elaine Fantham's commentary is at home, so
> I can't check what she says. After Optatian, first is [Hilarius] de
> martyrio Maccabaeorum ...
> 
> Don
> 
> ***************************************************************************
> * Don Fowler, Fellow and Tutor in Classics, Jesus College, Oxford OX1 3DW.*
> * [EMAIL PROTECTED], Telephone (01865) 279700, Fax (01865) 279687.*
> * Home Page: http://jesus.ox.ac.uk/~dpf/                                  *
> * Classics at Oxford: http://www.classics.ox.ac.uk                        *
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