In message <[EMAIL PROTECTED]
du>, RANDI C ELDEVIK <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> writes
>I'd be interested to know why "sicque" is objectionable by classical
>standards; and if Ovid did use this phrase once in the _Fasti_, can it
>really be called non-classical?  Rare, maybe, but not non-classical.  At
>any rate, why should classical poets have avoided "sicque"?
>Randi Eldevik
Because of the ugly combination of sounds, -c qu-. Both Greek and Latin
authors are far more sensitive to such matters than speakers of Germanic
languages; Dionysius of Halicarnassus wrote a whole treatise on them,
and he wasn't the only one, though actual rules have to be inducted from
usage.

Leofranc Holford-Strevens
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Leofranc Holford-Strevens
67 St Bernard's Road                                         usque adeone
Oxford               scire MEVM nihil est, nisi ME scire hoc sciat alter?
OX2 6EJ

tel. +44 (0)1865 552808(home)/267865(work)          fax +44 (0)1865 512237
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