In message <[EMAIL PROTECTED] du>, RANDI C ELDEVIK <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> writes >I'd be interested to know why "sicque" is objectionable by classical >standards; and if Ovid did use this phrase once in the _Fasti_, can it >really be called non-classical? Rare, maybe, but not non-classical. At >any rate, why should classical poets have avoided "sicque"? >Randi Eldevik Because of the ugly combination of sounds, -c qu-. Both Greek and Latin authors are far more sensitive to such matters than speakers of Germanic languages; Dionysius of Halicarnassus wrote a whole treatise on them, and he wasn't the only one, though actual rules have to be inducted from usage.
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