On Wed, Mar 6, 2024 at 03:00 PM, hari kumar wrote:

> 
> I believe that you have to dig a little bit deeper without relying on what
> the revisionist Khruschevites, and then Brezhnevites say. Or for that
> matter what Western economists say.

I hesitate to get into a debate about Stalin vs Trotsky or Stalin vs. 
Khrushchev since - despite the passions they continue to arouse on the broad 
Marxist left - the disputes are now mainly of historical interest and have 
limited contemporary relevance. Moreover, the Soviet data was often murky and 
inaccessible to researchers and, as is so frequently the case, was selectively 
drawn on by pro-Soviet and anti-Soviet and pro-Stalinist and anti-Stalinist 
factions and propagandists to support their political ends.

What seems beyond dispute, however, is that, as the European Parliament 
concedes, “in the Soviet Union, average income in the top 1 % was only 4-5 
times higher than that of society as a whole (since then, that ratio has risen 
to over 20). This relatively egalitarian situation changed dramatically in the 
early 1990s, as hastily adopted economic reforms abruptly turned the planned 
economy into a capitalist free market.”

https://www.europarl.europa.eu/RegData/etudes/ATAG/2018/620225/EPRS_ATA(2018)620225_EN.pdf.

Bland’s research to which Hari refers is impressive, but a 2017 paper by Thomas 
Piketty, Filip Novokmet, and Gabriel Zucman which attempted to examine 
"Inequality and Property in Russia 1905-2016” seems to contradict it by 
suggesting that there was, if anything, a slightly lower share of national 
wealth going to the Soviet elite under Khrushchev than under Stalin.

According to Piketty et al, "it is worth pointing out that although monetary 
inequality has been very low throughout the Soviet period, there are 
interesting medium term variations. Namely, we observe a very strong 
compression of the distribution of income during the first stage of the 
Revolution...followed by a relative enlargement of income hierarchies between 
1925 and 1956 during the Stalinist period, a gradual decline between 1956 and 
1980, and a rise during the 1980s and at the beginning of the economic reforms.”

See, in particular, graphs 8a, 8b, and 8c towards the end of their paper which 
attempt to plot the respective share of income of the top 1%, top 10%, and 
population more generally in the USSR and post-Soviet Russia from 1905-2015.

However, they do note that "the Soviet elite had access to superior goods, 
services and opportunities such as access to special shops, vacation 
facilities, etc. – which in effect could allow the Soviet top 1% to enjoy 
living standards that in some cases might have been substantially higher than 
4-5 times average incomes (though probably quite  a bit lower than under 
Tsarist or in post-Soviet Russia). Unfortunately we have no way to quantify 
this.”

http://piketty.pse.ens.fr/files/NPZ2017WIDworld.pdf

These "invisible earnings" seems to be Hari’s point, channeling Bland. But is 
it not the case that the elite under Stalin and Khrushchev were essentially one 
and the same and enjoyed the same privileges?. The data shows the inequality 
gap only beginning to widen with the growth of Soviet GNP in the aftermath the 
1973 rise in oil prices, and then surging after the restoration of capitalism 
in 1991. I’m in no position to judge the accuracy of the competing claims 
regarding the relative level of inequality under Stalin and Khrushchev, and I 
doubt there is an impartial arbitrator who could.

Suffice it to say, the differences between the two periods appear to be minor, 
especially when seen within the context of the enormous reduction in economic 
inequality in the USSR over the course of its history, and notwithstanding the 
growing power and privileges enjoyed by the political and administrative 
leadership after the Russian civil war and death of Lenin.


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