Can't look right now, but you should search for a theorem of the form A =
(/) <-> ( F " A ) = (/) .

On Wed, Mar 4, 2020, 11:30 AM 'Stanislas Polu' via Metamath <
[email protected]> wrote:

> I'm now looking to prove that `( abs " ( F " RR ) ) =/= (/)` given `F : RR
> --> RR`. From my exploration of the definition of --> I believe this should
> be enough but I don't see an easy path towards that? Would anybody have an
> example in mind that could give me a little bit of inspiration?
>
> Thanks for the continued support!
>
> -stan
>
> On Wed, Mar 4, 2020 at 6:29 PM Benoit <[email protected]> wrote:
>
>> Stan: you're right about the need to prove this (if using explicit
>> substitution): look for the utility theorems exchanging [. / ]. with other
>> symbols (quantifiers, operations).  As said by Jim and Thierry, who are
>> more experienced in proof building, implicit substitution might be easier
>> to use.  I think it is instructive to compare the details of both proving
>> styles on a specific example (e.g. ralbidv, suggested by Thierry, would be
>> analogous to exchanging [. / ]. with A.).
>>
>> Still, I think adding what I called rspesbcd could prove useful (if it is
>> not already in set.mm under another label; I cannot search now, but it
>> probably is already somewhere).
>>
>> BenoƮt
>>
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