I'm now looking to prove that `( abs " ( F " RR ) ) =/= (/)` given `F : RR
--> RR`. From my exploration of the definition of --> I believe this should
be enough but I don't see an easy path towards that? Would anybody have an
example in mind that could give me a little bit of inspiration?

Thanks for the continued support!

-stan

On Wed, Mar 4, 2020 at 6:29 PM Benoit <[email protected]> wrote:

> Stan: you're right about the need to prove this (if using explicit
> substitution): look for the utility theorems exchanging [. / ]. with other
> symbols (quantifiers, operations).  As said by Jim and Thierry, who are
> more experienced in proof building, implicit substitution might be easier
> to use.  I think it is instructive to compare the details of both proving
> styles on a specific example (e.g. ralbidv, suggested by Thierry, would be
> analogous to exchanging [. / ]. with A.).
>
> Still, I think adding what I called rspesbcd could prove useful (if it is
> not already in set.mm under another label; I cannot search now, but it
> probably is already somewhere).
>
> BenoƮt
>
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