Said individual would have to be able to prove he originally made the content available. I guess this could theoretically be possible ie if server logs verify it or something along those lines. Things to consider:
1. If said individual posted code anonymously, wouldn't that indicate they would like to remain anonymous? I think the court would also question why he posted the code anonymously and his "proof" would certainly come under some scrutiny. Comrade Ringo Kamens On Sun, Jun 22, 2008 at 5:23 PM, Paul de Weerd <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: > On Sun, Jun 22, 2008 at 05:18:51PM -0400, Ringo Kamens wrote: > | Sorry, I should have been more clear in my statement. What I was > | saying is that if the original author of the work published it > | anonymously, he would not be able to sue because he would not be able > | to prove he was the original author and copyright holder of the work. > > Well .. why not ? He can later say : "I was this anonymous guy, here > is $PROOF, you are in violation of my license, now pay me $$$". > > Cheers, > > Paul 'WEiRD' de Weerd > > -- >>++++++++[<++++++++++>-]<+++++++.>+++[<------>-]<.>+++[<+ > +++++++++++>-]<.>++[<------------>-]<+.--------------.[-] > http://www.weirdnet.nl/
