> 
> Jerry list
> 
> I’m afraid - most of your questions I can’t answer as I don’t readily 
> understand them.  As well,  I don’t read those philosophers that you refer to 
> ...
> 
> 1’]/  You write that a seme is: a thought that originates externally from an 
> external object..  I’m not sure that this is the definition of a ’seme’, 
> which to my understanding, is a ‘class-name [4.538],  as ‘anything which 
> serves for any purpose as a substitutive for an object of which it is, in 
> some sense, a representative  or Sign” .  Would an example be the odour of a 
> skunk?
> 
> 2] You refer to the ’sharp distinction’ between the interiority of the 
> individual or community mind from the object’.  Again, I’m not sure of your  
> meaning - do you mean the difference between the knowledge base or 
> ‘generalized habits-of-formation [ Thirdness] from the Dynamic Object? There 
> must be a differentiation between entities for interaction to take place, 
> but, there must also be some commonality of the knowledge base [ Thirdness] 
> for that interaction to even have any functionality! 
> 
> I don’t understand your reference to ‘commodities’.
> 
> 3] -1 Semiosis is always a process of the individual and within a  common 
> mind. 
> -2 Are you asking for an outline of the process of the semiosic act?It’s been 
> described on this list many times! See Peirce’s outline of ’the weather 
> 8.314’ where the sign-vehicle [Peirce] engages with the External Object [ the 
>  weather] which sighting becomes the Dynamic Object, passing data to the 
> knowledge base [representamen] which mediates and processes it to produce the 
> Interpretants [the understanding of the weather].. 
> 3- I can’t imagine that there are different forms of semiosis for different 
> objects! Not sure of your meaning. 
> -4 and 5- I’m afraid I don’t understand your questions.
> 
> And - don’t understand your point about ’scientific notations in complex 
> adaptive systems’ ..
> 
> Sorry. [ I also don’t know if this is more than my one post a day per thread 
> or what…I’ve been busy getting in a new washing machine and that’s been my 
> exciting involvement of the day..] 
> 
> Edwina
> 
>> On Aug 7, 2025, at 4:59 PM, Jerry LR Chandler <[email protected]> 
>> wrote:
>> 
>> Edwina:
>> 
>> This question of “ding an sich” appears to me to be far more important to 
>> reading CSP’s text than you acknowledge in your short post, understandably.
>> 
>> . In modern analytical philosophy, this question unfolds into the meanings 
>> of Ramsey sentences in the transformations of vocabularies from one 
>> scientific language to another. (See Halvorson, 2019, The Logic in the 
>> Philosophy of Science. CUP. See, section 8,1, p. 247).  BTW, the 
>> introductory chapter in this book is a remarkable historical critique of the 
>> multiple semantic approaches to expressing historical scientific syntax / 
>> semantic antecedents.  Multiple approaches to semiosis are represented, 
>> described and evaluated. A fun read!
>> 
>> But, I have digressed. 
>> My purpose is to address the roles of representations of forms / formula 
>> from various philosophical perspective - Descarte, Kant, Volta, Rutherford, 
>> Russell, Whitehead, Eddington and Carnap.
>> 
>> I would like to pose a few questions about your synthesis of CSP’s texts. 
>> The focus / locus of my questions relate to the concept of “seme” as a 
>> mental object.  By this I mean a thought (of any sort) that originates 
>> externally from an observed object. Further, by this I seek to express a 
>> clear, clean and sharp distinction between the interiority of an individual 
>> or community mind from the object as “ding an sich”.  Commodities are 
>> examples.
>> 
>> Now, one asks questions about locus of semiosis.   And its position in the 
>> grammars of relationships.
>> 
>> 1. Is semiosis a process of the individual mind in drawing (descriptive) 
>> consequents?
>> 2. If so, what is the nature of the process?  How are internal relations 
>> generated?
>> 3. Are there different formed of semiosis for different external objects? 
>> 4. If so, how are the forms separated and placed into propositions?  
>> 
>> Finally, the point that appears to be a bit metaphysical,
>> 
>> 5. Is semiosis apriori uni-local or is it bi-local? How is the external 
>> object related to the internal object?
>> 
>> Underlying these questions are your views on scientific notations in 
>> “complex adaptive systems”.More specifically, the abstractive nature of 
>> semiotics / semiosis / semantics of syntagmatic propositions as legisigns. 
>> 
>> Thank in advance for your perpetual willingness to engage…
>> 
>> Cheers
>> 
>> Jerry 
>> 
>> 
>>> On Aug 6, 2025, at 1:18 PM, Edwina Taborsky <[email protected]> 
>>> wrote:
>>> 
>>> List
>>> 
>>> I think that both Jack and Jon should define what each one means by the 
>>> term of ‘ding an sich’.  I suspect that for each, the meanings are quite 
>>> different - and therefore, we have a situation of tails chasing tails.
>>> 
>>> As for the one-post-per-day- I’m against it, because I think it transforms 
>>> an interactive discussion into a site of polemical sermons. 
>>> 
>>> And as an addition to this - I also suggest that posters should be careful 
>>> to differentiate themselves from their ‘mentors’, so to speak. That is - I 
>>> really don’t applaud the use of such phrases as ‘Peirce and I’ or 'Kant and 
>>> I’… The ‘best buddies' analogy only works, I suggest, for existential 
>>> reality  and since neither gentleman is around..then.... 
>>> 
>>> With regard to the Peircean outline of the 'ding an sich’….it’s not the 
>>> same, as I understand his outline, as the external object which is 
>>> ‘anything that is not affected by any cognition, whether about it of not, 
>>> of the man to whom it is external’ [5.525]. This simply means, to me, an 
>>> object which is not being interacted with at the moment by this human.ie, 
>>> until such time as it becomes a Dynamic Object rather than an ‘external 
>>> object’..[EP2.478]. Though I will note that this external object, let’s 
>>> call it a tree,  is most certainly in the semiosic process of Dynamic 
>>> Object  interaction with other entities such as a caterpillar, an ant, a 
>>> bird, ..
>>> 
>>> Peirce continues in this section  ….but, if you ‘exaggerate this …”you have 
>>> the conception of what is not affected by any cognitions at all…and.. the 
>>> notion of what does not affect cognition"…. That is - an entity which does 
>>> not affect cognition and which is itself not affected by cognition. 
>>> 
>>> This means, as I understand it, an entity which is outside of the processes 
>>> of Thirdness, because Thridness is the mode of being of Cognition or Mind,  
>>> I would just add that for Peirce, cognition does not require a brain 
>>> [4.551]…but is operative in all existentially..ie..existence requires 
>>> continuity of organization or habits-of-form, and these habits can be 
>>> understood as the operation  of Mind/cognition - whether within the 
>>> formation and operation of a chemical molecule, a bacterium or an insect. . 
>>> 
>>> And note further, that Thirdness is communal; ie, Forms or habits don't 
>>> exist ‘per se’ [Aristotle vs Plato] but only within existing entities and 
>>> operative as a general, as a commonality - operative within a collective 
>>> and thus requires interaction…which is to say, semiosis. Can the ding an 
>>> sich exist per se, outside of semiosis? 
>>>  In other words - is there such an entity operative without Mind? Doesn’t a 
>>> chemical molecule exist only within its common general formulation? And if 
>>> it does, then, doesn’t this put us more into the analysis offered by Peirce?
>>> 
>>> So- the definition of ‘ding an sich’,in my view, requires clarification.
>>> 
>>> Edwina
>>> 
>>> . 
>>> 
>>> 
>>> 
>>> 
>>> 
>>> 
>>> 
>>>> On Aug 6, 2025, at 12:35 PM, Jon Alan Schmidt <[email protected]> 
>>>> wrote:
>>>> 
>>>> Jack, List:
>>>> 
>>>> In addition to the List post to which I am replying, you sent me three 
>>>> off-List messages within 30 minutes last night, followed by a fourth one 
>>>> this morning. Why not just wait a few hours to get some sleep, collect 
>>>> your thoughts, and send a single on-List post--the one per thread per day 
>>>> that is currently allowed--with everything that you wanted to say? I have 
>>>> come to appreciate the wisdom of that restriction, so that is exactly what 
>>>> I am doing here, quoting your off-List messages where I address them. I 
>>>> have tried to limit the resulting length of this post by linking or citing 
>>>> some relevant passages instead of quoting them.
>>>> 
>>>> Your first statement below is inscrutable to me, but for "the tree 
>>>> example," you initially said the following off-List.
>>>> 
>>>> JRKC: Humans may use representational sign-systems but there is zero proof 
>>>> (and none possible) that trees and so forth do. The tree's reality may 
>>>> have no "representation" at all. And, insofar as it could, it would always 
>>>> be beyond us to ever know.
>>>> 
>>>> Not surprisingly for someone who has apparently embraced not only Kantian 
>>>> epistemology and metaphysics, but also Saussurean linguistics, this 
>>>> reflects a fundamental misunderstanding on your part--experience is a 
>>>> strictly cognitive phenomenon, but semiosis is not. "It appears in the 
>>>> work of bees, of crystals, and throughout the purely physical world; and 
>>>> one can no more deny that it is really there, than that the colors, the 
>>>> shapes, etc., of objects are really there" (CP 4.551, 1906). At this 
>>>> point, I join Peirce in despairing of making this "broader conception" 
>>>> understood, at least in your case. As you said later, "we probably diverge 
>>>> and that's fine."
>>>> 
>>>> I previously quoted Kant's own epistemological definition of a priori as 
>>>> "knowledge that is absolutely independent of all experience" (emphasis 
>>>> mine). Best I can tell, you are still misapplying that term to the 
>>>> ontological concept of a thing-in-itself as that which is (supposedly) 
>>>> "beyond all possible experience" and therefore unknowable. However, you 
>>>> have yet to address Peirce's simple refutation of this, which I summarized 
>>>> a couple of days ago 
>>>> (https://list.iu.edu/sympa/arc/peirce-l/2025-08/msg00008.html) as 
>>>> presented in the very same paragraph where he refers to Kant as someone 
>>>> "whom I more than admire" (CP 5.525, c. 1905; see also CP 6.95, 1903). 
>>>> Needless to say, I continue to agree with him, and thus disagree with you 
>>>> and Kant; again, "we probably diverge and that's fine."
>>>> 
>>>> JRKC: Not to be a pain, but the Gödel part is also wrong. When you 
>>>> demonstrate complete inequivalence it has a bearing on all possible 
>>>> systems. That includes all possible meaning making systems--including this 
>>>> one and any possible system Peirce uses.
>>>> 
>>>> I still disagree--Gödel's incompleteness theorems strictly pertain to 
>>>> sufficiently powerful formal systems as mathematical proofs that draw 
>>>> necessary conclusions about hypothetical states of things. Applying them 
>>>> in epistemology and ontology requires showing that both our knowledge and 
>>>> reality itself conform to every single premiss, including a specific 
>>>> formal system that meets the stipulated criteria. In other words, complete 
>>>> inequivalence is a controversial hypothesis, not another established 
>>>> theorem.
>>>> 
>>>> JRKC: Any definition of an object through a symbolic system is a function 
>>>> of the system, not the object.
>>>> 
>>>> Objects do not have definitions, words do; and those definitions are 
>>>> indeed functions of the sign system being employed, not the objects that 
>>>> they purport to describe. In Peircean terms, the definition of a word is 
>>>> its immediate interpretant, and whatever conforms to that definition is 
>>>> its (potential) immediate object when it is incorporated into a 
>>>> proposition. Any description of something using words is inevitably 
>>>> incomplete because the words themselves and the concepts that they denote 
>>>> are general and therefore indeterminate. As a result, "[T]he subject of 
>>>> discourse ... can, in fact, not be described in general terms; it can only 
>>>> be indicated. The actual world cannot be distinguished from a world of 
>>>> imagination by any description. Hence the need of pronoun and indices, and 
>>>> the more complicated the subject the greater the need of them" (CP 3.363, 
>>>> 1885; see also CP 2.337, c. 1895, and CP 2.536, 1902).
>>>> 
>>>> Peirce's Existential Graphs iconically illustrate this. In the Beta part, 
>>>> names (words) denote general concepts and heavy lines of identity denote 
>>>> indefinite individuals (objects) to which those concepts are attributed by 
>>>> attaching their names. The effect of such combinations in various 
>>>> propositions is making the concepts more determinate and the individuals 
>>>> more definite--ascribing the same concept to multiple individuals, 
>>>> increasing that concept's logical breadth; and ascribing different 
>>>> concepts to the same individual, increasing each concept's logical depth 
>>>> (see the last two CSP quotations in my post at 
>>>> https://list.iu.edu/sympa/arc/peirce-l/2025-07/msg00068.html). The product 
>>>> of these for any particular concept is its information (CP 2.419, 1867), 
>>>> which increases in both ways.
>>>> 
>>>> This finally gets us back to my semiosic ontological hypothesis, which I 
>>>> will discuss further in a separate post in that thread.
>>>> 
>>>> Regards,
>>>> 
>>>> Jon Alan Schmidt - Olathe, Kansas, USA
>>>> Structural Engineer, Synechist Philosopher, Lutheran Christian
>>>> www.LinkedIn.com/in/JonAlanSchmidt 
>>>> <http://www.linkedin.com/in/JonAlanSchmidt> / twitter.com/JonAlanSchmidt 
>>>> <http://twitter.com/JonAlanSchmidt>
>>>> On Tue, Aug 5, 2025 at 11:13 PM Jack Cody <[email protected] 
>>>> <mailto:[email protected]>> wrote:
>>>>> I can prove that to/through (mediation) the human being, the thing cannot 
>>>>> be what it is in asbentia of that relation nor need it even be similar or 
>>>>> remotely equivalent. I assert it rhetorically here. 
>>>>> 
>>>>> Now the tree example below, qua "impossible to know how a tree 
>>>>> experiences anything as the tree does for a human" - this has an obvious 
>>>>> bearing on realities that cannot possibly be represented (unless we mean 
>>>>> represented as in "made-up conceptual stuff which is not true"). 
>>>>> 
>>>>> As to ontology — and sorry for the double post — Kant's claim is 
>>>>> absolutely ontological for the noumenal is an ontological distinction and 
>>>>> use of "apriori" as beyond experience is catogircally demarcated from his 
>>>>> use of it in other contexts. He means, by the first a priori, that the 
>>>>> meaning of the "thing" as it is is beyond all possible experience and 
>>>>> that is what the thing in itself, generally, refers/corresponds to. That 
>>>>> is an ontological distinction (you cannot merely call it epistemological 
>>>>> wheter you accept the ontological distinction or not). 
>>>>> 
>>>>> Best wishes, 
>>>>> 
>>>>> Jack
>>>> _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
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> 

_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
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