Hello again,

This is a continuation of the thread concerning Peirce's philosophy of
perception, which was begun under chapter 4 but I think is equally
relevant to chapter 5.

Vinicius I apologise for not having responded to your fine initial
postings yet. I currently have my head deep in Peirce's philosophy of
perception, trying to work it out. I will get there.

Jeff wrote:  "As a quick response, I think there is some tension between
what I've said and the points Peirce makes at 7.19-22.  Having said that I
think my interpretation fits well with what he says a bit later starting
at 7.25.  He's trying to hold a number of ideas together and build an
account that explains a number of things needed for the sake of the larger
logical (i.e., semiotic) theory.  As a starting point, I'd want to get
clear on the phenomena that need to be explain and the method being used
in the analysis.  Peirce explicitly says that he's not doing empirical
psychology."

The questions I currently have, which concern the theory of perception
presented in "Telepathy and Perception": (CP 7.597-688) are as follows:

- I take it that the percept, perceptual judgement and percipuum are meant
to be in the order 1-2-3. But then Peirce says that the percept contains
1ness and 2ness, and the perceptual judgment has a residual kind of 3ness
insofar as it purports to represent the percept. So what exactly is the
difference between the perceptual judgment and the percipuum??

- Sandra Rosenthal's paper "The Percipuum and the Issue of Foundations",
which Ben referred to a while back, which is really excellent, notes that
percept and perceptual judgement (and indeed other 'parts' of perception
such as the antecept and the ponecept) should not be viewed so much as
objects but more as abstractions for the purposes of theoretical analysis.
That is fine, but then Peirce says that the relation between percept and
perceptual judgment is that the percept causes the perceptual judgment
while not being the source of its content. (Am I right about this?) Now my
question is how something that is only an abstraction can be a forceful
cause - ?

Cheers, Cathy
-----------------------------
PEIRCE-L subscribers: Click on "Reply List" or "Reply All" to REPLY ON PEIRCE-L 
to this message. PEIRCE-L posts should go to peirce-L@list.iupui.edu . To 
UNSUBSCRIBE, send a message not to PEIRCE-L but to l...@list.iupui.edu with the 
line "UNSubscribe PEIRCE-L" in the BODY of the message. More at 
http://www.cspeirce.com/peirce-l/peirce-l.htm .




Reply via email to