Ben, yes, that’s exactly how I read the Peirce quote. The signs “soldier” and 
“George Washington” are both general in themselves (i.e. legisigns) and thus 
subjectively general because they exist only in replica, as he puts it in Kaina 
Stoicheia. But “soldier,” like the statue, is objectively general because its 
object is general, i.e. there are many soldiers (but only one George 
Washington). – Who, we might say, was an individual General, but in another 
sense of “General” not relevant here! 

 

I’m not sure what to make of your “universal ambassador,” but anyway Peirce’s 
usage of “subject” and “subjective” goes back to the usage of the Latins such 
as Duns Scotus, which Peirce had great respect for, and that’s why he avoided 
the modern Kantian usage of “subject” which obscured that fact that dynamic 
objects can also be subjects “in themselves” regardless of whether they are 
sentient or alive. That modern usage is a more anthropomorphized usage of 
“subject, ” another reason why Peirce avoided it when he could. 

 

Gary f.

 

From: Benjamin Udell [mailto:[email protected]] 
Sent: May 10, 2015 1:10 PM
To: [email protected]; 'Peirce-L 1'
Subject: [biosemiotics:8615] Re: Natural

 

Gary F., Howard, lists,

Gary F., regarding this excerpt from your quote of Peirce in "What Pragmaticism 
Is",

[....] That statue, then, though it is itself single, represents any one man of 
whom a certain predicate may be true. It is _objectively_ general. The word 
“soldier,” whether spoken or written, is general in the same way; while the 
name “George Washington” is not so. But each of these two terms remains one and 
the same noun, whether it be spoken or written, and whenever and wherever it be 
spoken or written. This noun is not an existent thing: it is a _type_, or 
_form_, to which objects, both those that are externally existent and those 
which are imagined, may conform, but which none of them can exactly be. This is 
subjective generality. [....] 
[End quote]

It sounds like Peirce is considering the sign as subject and its semiotic 
object as object. Do you think that that's what Peirce is doing? In that case 
it makes pretty simple sense that the sign's 'subjective generality' means the 
sign's generality in the sign's own being, while the sign's 'objective 
generality' is the sign's referring to some object(s) generally.  

I can think of a third kind of general, which could be both 'subjectively' and 
'objectively' individual, yet is general in another way, such as a _universal 
ambassador_ an (existent country's existent) ambassador _to_ every country in 
general, addressed to a full range of interpretants or interpreting minds in 
the sphere of international relations. (On the other hand Peirce came to 
express doubts about casting that which we call a legal representative as 
simply a sign or representamen of the client or employer or voters, etc., since 
such a representative may significantly affect its supposedly represented 
object).

Best, Ben

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