Dear All,
I wonder why Peirce associated the categories like that. To me it rather seems like matter would be 1ns, form 2ns, and entelechy 3ns. That is because I cannot see more than one mode in matter, but 2 in form: Reason for it, and aim (telos) of it. Aristotle said, that form consists of energy and entelechy, so two parts (modes?). 2.1. might be said like: material reason of the form, or the form´s sustenance by matter, potential energies keeping the form together, and 2.2. the form of the form, or the form´s formal reason, which is it´s aim.
Also, I see "quality" rather associated with matter than with form. As the form of a thing is more likely to change due to circumstances than its matter is, I see "actuality" rather suiting with "form" than with "matter".
Does "entelechy" contain "telos"? Does it mean quite the similar?
Best,
Helmut
12. Februar 2018 um 18:42 Uhr
"Ben Novak" <trevriz...@gmail.com>
wrote:
"Ben Novak" <trevriz...@gmail.com>
wrote:
Dear All:
A quarter of a century ago (December 1993), several of the subjects of this discussion thread (either explicit, implied, or merely mentioned) were rather eloquently addressed in an article in First Things, "Discovering the American Aristotle," by Edward T. Oakes:
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"All art is mortal, not merely the individual artifacts, but the arts themselves. One day the last portrait of Rembrandt and the last bar of Mozart will have ceased to be—though possibly a colored canvas and a sheet of notes may remain—because the last eye and the last ear accessible to their message will have gone." Oswald Spengler
On Mon, Feb 12, 2018 at 12:24 PM, Stephen C. Rose <stever...@gmail.com> wrote:
Thanks Jon. That is a direct confirmation of the rather over the top dispatch of Aristotle in the quote I sent. My own work maintained initially that Aristotle's ethics were responsible for the ethical problems of our first two millennia and I laid that at the feet of his reliance on virtues which is indisputable. OTH Aristotle reads almost modern and cannot be superseded by Peirce unless others see his work as seismic in the same sense that A's work became seen. I see Shakespeare as a pre-Percean and a marvelous antidote to virtues ethics. SOn Mon, Feb 12, 2018 at 12:00 PM, Jon Alan Schmidt <jonalanschm...@gmail.com> wrote:-----------------------------List:As the chief culprit for the recent glut of messages--apparently I was the sender of more than one-third of the 200+ over the first 11 days of February--I offer my sincere apology, and my promise to try to temper my enthusiasm for the current discussion topics, or at least "pace myself" (as the saying goes) in responding. Please do not hesitate to contact me directly off-List if you think that I am getting out of hand again.I am replying in this thread only because I believe that the following excerpt provides a direct answer to Stephen R.'s question about whether Peirce classified Aristotle as a nominalist.CSP: Aristotle held that Matter and Form were the only elements of experience. But he had an obscure conception of what he calls entelechy, which I take to be a groping for the recognition of a third element which I find clearly in experience. Indeed it is by far the most overt of the three. It was this that caused Aristotle to overlook it ... Aristotle, so far as he is a nominalist, and he may, I think, be described as a nominalist with vague intimations of realism, endeavors to express the universe in terms of Matter and Form alone ... It may be remarked that if, as I hold, there are three categories, Form, Matter, and Entelechy, then there will naturally be seven schools of philosophy; that which recognizes Form alone, that which recognizes Form and Matter alone, that which recognizes Matter alone (these being the three kinds of nominalism); that which recognizes Matter and Entelechy alone; that which recognizes Entelechy alone (which seems to me what a perfectly consistent Hegelianism would be); that which recognizes Entelechy and Form alone (these last three being the kinds of imperfect realism); and finally the true philosophy which recognizes Form, Matter, and Entelechy. (NEM 4:294-295; c. 1903?, emphasis added)This is part of a lengthy passage where, as I have remarked in other recent threads, Peirce explicitly associated Form with 1ns (quality or suchness), Matter with 2ns (the subject of a fact), and Entelechy with 3ns (that which brings together Matter and Form; i.e., Signs).Regards,Jon Alan Schmidt - Olathe, Kansas, USAProfessional Engineer, Amateur Philosopher, Lutheran LaymanOn Mon, Feb 12, 2018 at 9:22 AM, Stephen C. Rose <stever...@gmail.com> wrote:173. But fallibilism cannot be appreciated in anything like its true significancy until evolution has been considered. This is what the world has been most thinking of for the last forty years -- though old enough is the general idea itself. Aristotle's philosophy, that dominated the world for so many ages and still in great measure tyrannizes over the thoughts of butchers and bakers that never heard of him -- is but a metaphysical evolutionism.
Peirce: CP 1.174 Cross-Ref:††
Interesting. Has anyone done a study of Peirce and Aristotle. In what did Peirce's alleged tyranny consist? This is in something I found in an old book I have but it is also in CP. Did classify Aristotle as a dualist or nominalist? Or more narrowly as here?
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