Helmut, List: No, the Sign *itself *is not a triadic relation; it is one *Correlate *(or *Subject*) of a triadic relation, along with the Object and the Interpretant. I think it is very important to maintain this fundamental distinction.
As I said earlier today in another thread, a Y is adequate as a *logical *representation of any triadic relation, but it omits the distinctive "directionality" of semiosis--*from *the Object *through *the Sign *to *the Interpretant. "S mediates between O and I" is indeed quite general, but it is Peirce's own formulation once that "directionality" is incorporated--"O determines S relatively to I, and S determines I in reference to O, such that O determines I through the mediation of S" (cf. EP 2:410; 1907). Mats Bergman even characterized this as "one of Peirce's finest sign definitions." "S represents O to I" is more specific, but still correct with I as the Interpretant, since that is the "essential ingredient" of the interpreter, just as the Object is the "essential ingredient" of the utterer (cf. EP 2:404; 1907). However, "S represents O as I" seems incorrect to me; rather, "S represents DO as IO" is closer to my understanding. Regards, Jon Alan Schmidt - Olathe, Kansas, USA Professional Engineer, Amateur Philosopher, Lutheran Layman www.LinkedIn.com/in/JonAlanSchmidt - twitter.com/JonAlanSchmidt On Tue, Aug 21, 2018 at 2:26 PM, Helmut Raulien <h.raul...@gmx.de> wrote: > Jon, List, > > To your point 2.: I think, a sign is a triadic relation, so a Y is ok, but > it is a very special kind of triadic relation. I think: > > -"S mediates between O and I" is too general, because it does not show > that there is a difference between O and I. > > -"S represents O to I" is wrong, I think, because in that case "I" would > be the interpreter, not the interpretant. I propose: > > -"S represents O as I". > > Best, Helmut >
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