Edwina, List:

ET:  That is, as JAS does, to maintain the reality of God as exo-Universe,
by setting up a purely theoretical argument that begins with the Peircean
statement that 'the Universe is composed of Signs' - and then, regress to
the Peircean claim that 'since semiosis is continuous then, all signs are
ONE sign'..and then, regress further to say that 'A Sign must have an
object external to itself' -....to then reach the conclusion that the
Universe is A Sign and has an external Object to itself, which JAS names as
'God' -


I sincerely appreciate this mostly accurate restatement of my Semeiotic
Argumentation, as well as the acknowledgement that at least the first two
premisses are Peircean.  The second one should really be that any system of
connected Signs constitutes one Sign, from which (along with the first) it
follows that the Universe is a Sign; and the use of "regress" is a bit odd
in this context.

ET:   I think that such a purely intellectual argument as 'logical proof of
the reality of God' is extremely weak as an argument in itself ...


As with any logical or mathematical "proof"--i.e., any *deductive
*argumentation--the
conclusion is only as strong as the premisses.  If one premiss is false,
then the conclusion is false, or at least unwarranted on the basis of *that
*premiss; but anyone who affirms *all *of the premisses is *rationally
required* to affirm the conclusion, as well.

ET:  ... and in addition, it ignores two factors of the basic Peircean
framework - that there is NOTHING external to the Universe, and to declare
that a Sign must have an external Object ignores that this external Object
must also function as a Sign - and thus, must be *within* the semiosic
process; ie within the Universe  - which operates as a semiosic process.


The problem here is the inconsistency of those two propositions with the
premisses listed above.  If there is *nothing *external to the Universe, or
if every Object *is *a Sign and every Sign (hence every Object) is *within *the
Universe, then the Universe *cannot *be determined by an Object *external *to
itself; and therefore, the Universe *cannot *be a Sign.  But if the
Universe is *not *a Sign, then either the Universe is *not *composed of
Signs, or a system of connected Signs does *not *constitute one Sign--and
both of these *necessary *conclusions would *directly *contradict *explicit
*statements by Peirce.  Hence I disagree that those two propositions are
"factors of the basic Peircean framework."

ET:  All we can comment with regard to the reality or not of 'God' is, of
course, a purely theoretical argument - since we all acknowledge that there
is no empirical evidence of either God's reality or non-reality ...


I, for one, *do not* "acknowledge that there is no empirical evidence of
either God's reality or non-reality."  The truth of such a blanket
statement hinges entirely on what one means by "empirical evidence."  My
position is that it is not a matter of whether there *is *such evidence
either way, but rather how one *evaluates *the evidence.  "A Neglected
Argument" expresses one sense in which *Peirce *affirmed that there
*is *empirical
(i.e., experiential) evidence for the Reality of God.

Regards,

Jon Alan Schmidt - Olathe, Kansas, USA
Professional Engineer, Amateur Philosopher, Lutheran Layman
www.LinkedIn.com/in/JonAlanSchmidt - twitter.com/JonAlanSchmidt

On Fri, May 17, 2019 at 8:56 AM Edwina Taborsky <tabor...@primus.ca> wrote:

> List
>
> I don't think the problem is a binary conclusion. The problem I have with
> these arguments is that they are strictly that - intellectual
> arguments. Without pragmatic evidence or even, universality. Therefore -
> there can be no valid conclusion.
>
> That is, as JAS does, to maintain the reality of God as exo-Universe, by
> setting up a purely theoretical argument that begins with the Peircean
> statement that 'the Universe is composed of Signs' - and then, regress to
> the Peircean claim that 'since semiosis is continuous then, all signs are
> ONE sign'..and then, regress further to say that 'A Sign must have an
> object external to itself' -....to then reach the conclusion that the
> Universe is A Sign and has an external Object to itself, which JAS names as
> 'God' -
>
>  I think that such a purely intellectual argument as 'logical proof of the
> reality of God' is extremely weak as an argument in itself and in addition,
> it ignores two factors of the basic Peircean framework - that there is
> NOTHING external to the Universe, and to declare that a Sign must have an
> external Object ignores that this external Object must also function as a
> Sign - and thus, must be within the semiosic process; ie within the
> Universe  - which operates as a semiosic process. Does this mean
> transcendence or immanence?
>
> All we can comment with regard to the reality or not of 'God' is, of
> course, a purely theoretical argument - since we all acknowledge that there
> is no empirical evidence of either God's reality or non-reality; and thus,
> of course, of the binary transcendence or immanence.
>
> My concern is the use we make of Peirce to substantiate our beliefs. JAS
> and I interpret Peirce's framework in two totally different ways.
>
> Edwina
>
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