John, List:

For the record, I have consistently referred to *my* Semeiotic
Argumentation, and have never--*not once*--attributed it to Peirce.  What I
*have* said is that Peirce *affirmed *each of its *premisses*, and I have
provided ample evidence from his *explicit* statements to support that
claim.  Moreover, the only time that I used the word "proof" was in
response to *someone else *mentioning "logical proof of the reality of
God," and I put quotation marks around it accordingly.

JAS:  As with any logical or mathematical "proof"--i.e., any
*deductive *argumentation--the
conclusion is only as strong as the premisses.  If one premiss is false,
then the conclusion is false, or at least unwarranted on the basis of
*that *premiss; but anyone who affirms *all *of the premisses is *rationally
required* to affirm the conclusion, as well.


On the other hand, Peirce himself used the word "proof" *without *such
quotation marks in a passage that I have quoted a couple of times.

CSP:  ... the discoveries of science, their enabling us to *predict *what
will be the course of nature, is proof conclusive that, though we cannot
think any thought of God's, we can catch a fragment of His Thought, as it
were. (CP 6.502; c. 1906)


Regards,

Jon Alan Schmidt - Olathe, Kansas, USA
Professional Engineer, Amateur Philosopher, Lutheran Layman
www.LinkedIn.com/in/JonAlanSchmidt - twitter.com/JonAlanSchmidt

On Sun, May 19, 2019 at 2:01 PM John F Sowa <s...@bestweb.net> wrote:

> Gary F,
>
> Thank you for a post that doesn't go off the "deep end" by attributing
> arguments to Peirce that he never stated, implied, ot even hinted.
>
> GF
> > any knowledge that any mind can have of God must consist of
> > predicates attributed to the real Subject we call “God” — which
> > name, says Peirce, is different from all other proper names because
> > it is definable. Every other proper name is an index of an entity
> > who, at some time in some universe of discourse, has existed in
> > some embodied form, and the prerequisite for knowledge of that
> > subject is collateral experience of it.
>
> I would just add that Peirce also considered proper names, such
> as Hamlet or Napoleon, for which collateral experience with the
> individual is impossible (EP 2:493).  For both of them, our only
> source collateral experience is in what we read or hear.
>
> The same could be said about God.  For most people, knowledge of
> God comes from the same kind of sources as our knowledge of Hamlet
> or Napoleon.  Even people who can remember any definition from any
> catechism depend mainly on stories they read or heard.
>
> GF
> > If there is no evidence, no means of testing a hypothesis
> > inductively, there is no knowledge, no matter how fallible
> > or provisional we take it to be.
>
> Yes.  Jon's so-called proof is a hypothesis about the existence
> and actions of something that conforms to some definition.  The
> same conclusion could be derived by replacing the name 'God' with
> the name of any deity, demiurge, or monster.  Benevolence is not a
> prerequisite.
>
> GF
> > I hope that will suffice, and is sufficiently focused on the
> > semiotic/logical/cognitive issues, because I’d rather not go
> > any further into theology than I have here.
>
> I very strongly agree.  And I'll repeat Stephen's point:
> "Enough already."
>
> John
>
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