Edwina, List:

1.  Please reread what you quoted from CP 5.484 very carefully.  It states
that *semeiosis *is "an action or influence" that involves *three
*subjects, one of
which is a *Sign*.  Hence the word "Sign" does not denote the *action*, but
one of the three *subjects *involved in that action; i.e., it does not
denote the *triad *or *triadic relation*, but one of its three *correlates*,
as I have been saying all along.

2.  Please stop calling my view "reductionism" and pretending that I
invented it myself.  I am *directly quoting *Peirce when I say that "if any
signs are connected, no matter how, the resulting system constitutes one
sign" (R 1476:36[5-1/2]; c. 1904).  Denying what Peirce explicitly called a
"theorem" of the "science of semeiotics" is straightforwardly *disagreeing
with him*, and he also went on to state *explicitly *the implication that
"the body of all thought is a sign" (singular).

ET:  Therefore although each of your premises might be in itself valid in
its own domain, I consider that putting them together leads to a false
conclusion ...


If each of my premisses is *true*, and the form of my argumentation is
*valid*--which it unquestionably is, as demonstrated below--then the
conclusion *must *also be true; i.e., my argumentation is *sound*.

Regards,

Jon S.

On Mon, May 20, 2019 at 11:32 AM Edwina Taborsky <tabor...@primus.ca> wrote:

> JAS, list
>
> 1] I disagree with your assertion that Peirce never said that the triad is
> a sign. See.. "by 'semiosis' I mean, on the contrary, an action or
> influence, which is, or involves, a cooperation of three subjects, such as
> a sign, its object, and its interpretant, this tri-relative influence not
> being in any way resolvable into actions between pairs...'semeiosis' in
> Greek of the Roman period, as early as Cicero's time, if I remember
> rightly, meant the action of any kind of sign; and my definition on
> anything that so acts the title of a 'sign' 5.484. I read that to mean
> that the title of 'sign' refers to the semiosic tri-relative action'. My
> emphasis on the words of 'action' and 'act'. Therefore - I continue to use
> the term of Sign to refer to this tri-relative action.
>
> 2] My reading of 'the entire universe is perfused with signs, if it is not
> composed exclusively of signs'  is that the universe is a continuous
> semiosic process - of that triad. You, on the other hand, seem to
> understand this to mean a reductionism which declares that All signs are
> connected and therefore, are ONE sign' - whereas I understand Peircean
> semiosis to be a continuous process but not a material reductionism of its
> material results.
>
> It's almost like saying that 'The forest is perfused with trees;
> therefore, the forest is a tree'.
>
> Therefore although each of your premises might be in itself valid in its
> own domain, I consider that putting them together leads to a false
> conclusion -especially if we differ on the meaning of the terms [Sign].
>
> Edwina
>
> On Mon 20/05/19 11:28 AM , Jon Alan Schmidt jonalanschm...@gmail.com sent:
>
> Edwina, List:
>
> ET:  All dogs are animals/All cats are animals.  BOTH these premises are
> true. Can I logically then state that All dogs are cats?
>
>
> No, and why not?  Because the conclusion does not follow necessarily from
> the premisses; the form of the argumentation is invalid.  The same is
> true of the other examples below.  Now consider a different one--all dogs
> are animals, and Rover is a dog; can I logically then state that Rover is
> an animal?  Yes, because the conclusion does follow necessarily from the
> premisses; the form of the argumentation is valid.  My Semeiotic
> Argumentation has exactly the same form as the second case, not the first
> case or any of the others below; therefore, it is valid, such that the
> conclusion does follow necessarily from the premisses.
>
>    - Every Sign is determined by an Object other than itself = all dogs
>    are animals, and
>    - The entire Universe is a Sign = Rover is a dog; therefore,
>    - The entire Universe is determined by an Object other than itself =
>    Rover is an animal.
>
> So I suppose that I should have said explicitly what I took to be
> obviously implied--for any valid deductive argumentation, the conclusion
> is only as strong as the premisses.  If one premiss is false, then the
> conclusion is false, or at least unwarranted on the basis of  that premiss;
> e.g., if the entire Universe is not a Sign, or if Rover is not a dog.
> However, anyone who affirms all of the premisses is rationally required
>  to affirm the conclusion, as well.
>
> Regards,
>
> Jon Alan Schmidt - Olathe, Kansas, USA
> Professional Engineer, Amateur Philosopher, Lutheran Layman
> www.LinkedIn.com/in/JonAlanSchmidt - twitter.com/JonAlanSchmidt
>
> On Mon, May 20, 2019 at 8:04 AM Edwina Taborsky <tabor...@primus.ca>
> wrote:
>
>> JAS, list
>>
>> The problem I have with this claim is that it is invalid.
>>
>> JAS:  As with any logical or mathematical "proof"--i.e., any deductive 
>> argumentation--the
>> conclusion is only as strong as the premisses.  If one premiss is false,
>> then the conclusion is false, or at least unwarranted on the basis of
>> that premiss; but anyone who affirms  all of the premisses is rationally
>> required to affirm the conclusion, as well."
>>
>> For example,
>>
>> All dogs are animals/All cats are animals.  BOTH these premises are true.
>> Can I logically then state that All dogs are cats?
>>
>> How about:
>>
>> The robber wears size 12 boots/ You wear size 12 boots. Both premises are
>> true. So, YOU are the bank robber.
>>
>> All plumbers repair sinks/ Henry repaired this sink. [both premises are
>> true]. So- can we say that Henry is a plumber?
>>
>> All men are rational animals/No woman is a man. [All true]. Therefore no
>> woman is a rational animal.
>>
>> And so on...
>>
>
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