Gary F.

You wrote a curious response, stating that I appropriate a technical term to 
evoke a broader concept of commons.


For the record: I did introduce the history of the term culture in the social 
sciences in order to show that in his days it was wanting (Bildung in Germany 
and civil society in the UK differ significantly in meaning). This in order to 
make guess at why at one time Peirce  did hold an opinion that later was 
dismissed. And, between the lines to suggest that Peirce's devotion to the 
project of science hindered him in his development of semiotics for enterprises 
not aiming at the truth in the long run.

 

Your suggestion to take recourse to Hess and Ostrom (2007) is even more curious.

I looked it up: http://www.wtf.tw/ref/hess_ostrom_2007.pdf

I frankly do not see how this fits in with my argument. But worse, even if I 
did have the inclination you attribute to me, I don't see how this could 
further that enterprise.

On the other hand, I do see how Peirce's semiotics, offers possibilities to 
deal with cultural differences, conflicts and theories about the relation 
between individuals and culture.

In combination with his process description as summarized in Hulswitt, and 
bringing De Tienne's suggestion (i.e. a need for a sheet for phaneroscopy in 
order to get a diagrammatical hold on the subject that equals EG) to semiotics 
by introducing the sheet of semiosis and making a process description in 
semiotic terms.

Best,

Auke

> Op 11 juni 2020 om 14:54 schreef g...@gnusystems.ca:
> 
> 
>     Robert and Auke,
> 
>     I don’t think anyone questions the reality of a pool of information, 
> published or not, which is not the “private property” of individual owners 
> but is (or should be) a resource available to all members of a culture. If we 
> want to discuss its role in cultural semiosis, why not use an established 
> term such as “knowledge commons”? (See for instance Hess and Ostrom (2007), 
> Understanding Knowledge as a Commons.) Peirce had to define his peculiar term 
> commens precisely because it was (and is) not in common use. Appropriating 
> Peirce’s technical term to evoke the broader concept of the commons invites 
> confusion by reading into Peirce a conception that is only vaguely related to 
> the context of his argument.
> 
>      
> 
>     Gary f.
> 
>      
> 
>     From: Auke van Breemen <a.bree...@chello.nl>
>     Sent: 11-Jun-20 03:09
>     To: peirce-l@list.iupui.edu
>     Subject: Re: Re: Re: RE: [PEIRCE-L] Peirce's Way of Thinking (was Theory 
> and Analysis of Semeiosis)
> 
>      
> 
>     Jon Alen,
> 
>      
> 
>         > > 
> >         That is an opinion, and even if valid, it does not change the fact 
> > that Peirce invented and defined "the commens."  I find it misleading to 
> > use his peculiar term to mean something else.
> > 
> >          
> > 
> >     > 
>     Isn't our duscussion about the meaning of a particular term, i.e. 
> commens? And, my contribution, about the need to look at the wider context in 
> order to grasp the direction of a thought?
> 
>         > > 
> >             > > > 
> > >             At that point, I agree that a case can sometimes be made for 
> > > either side; but my default assumption is that his later writings reflect 
> > > his more considered views, and hence should be given slightly more weight 
> > > accordingl
> > > 
> > >         > > 
> >     > 
>     Fine that you made clear that it is just your default assumption and not 
> the nature of the case.
> 
>     …
> 


 

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