One brief thought about the election.  The NYT reported, if I recall
correctly, that men split 54-46 for the Republicans, while women split 54-46
for the Democrats.  If true, this means that the election was decided entirely
on the basis of differential turnout.  What might explain *this* gender gap?
In a negative political climate were men more willing to go to the polls to
vote against someone?

Peter Dorman

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