Peter Dorman writes:
> One brief thought about the election. The NYT reported, if I recall
> correctly, that men split 54-46 for the Republicans, while women split 54-46
> for the Democrats. If true, this means that the election was decided entirely
> on the basis of differential turnout. What might explain *this* gender gap?
> In a negative political climate were men more willing to go to the polls to
> vote against someone?
>
It's more complicated than you suggest, Peter. The same data set
showed that men made up 49% of those who voted, women 51%. Given the
above and taking straight averages suggests that Democrats should
have won in most places. Must have been some strange clumping
patterns.
Gil Skillman
