Is "the Cratylus" one of the dialogues which (more of less) represents
Socrates' opinion or one of those in which Plato asserts his perspective?


On Sun, Aug 18, 2013 at 8:41 PM, Shane Mage <[email protected]> wrote:

>
> On Aug 18, 2013, at 11:02 PM, Jim Devine wrote:
>
>
>   (I’m no philosopher, but as far as I can tell Plato thought the
> “correct” definition would correspond to the divine “form,” which he
> assumed exists. The form is assumed to be simple (having no complicated
> concrete details, no shades of gray). Both the definition and the form are
> abstract, so it’s possible for a human-made definition to be correct in
> defining the form. Of course, Plato assumed that he’s the type who can find
> the correct definition. Not everyone is so smart.)
>
>
> You should read the dialogue that Plato wrote on that subjecty: the
> Cratylus.  In this dialogue the two positions counterposed are that
> "definitions" (meanings of words) are inherent in the language and that
> they are purely conventional.  Socrates shows (as usual) that neither
> position (as developed in the dialogue) is at all satisfactory. But he
> makes it clear that the right approach to language should treat it as a
> sort of tool, 2.300 years before Wittgenstein!
>
>
>
>
> Shane Mage
>
> "L'après-vie, c'est une auberge espagnole. L'on n'y trouve que ce qu'on a
> apporté."
>
> Bardo Thodol
>
>
>
>
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>


-- 
Jim Devine /  "Reality is that which, when you stop believing in it,
doesn't go away." -- Philip K. Dick
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