>From Ernest Mandel's introduction to the Penguin edition of Capital 2 "Productive labor, as labour expended in the realm of production of commodities, is all wage labor indispensible for that production process...even managers and stock clerks, insofar as the physical production of the commodity would be impossible without that labor. But wage labor which is indifferent to the specific use value of a commodity and is performed only to extort the maximum surplus value from the work force or to assure the defence of private property, labour linked to the particular social and juridicial forms of capitalist production (etc...) none of these is productive labor for capital"
Why is this? He gives a cite to capital 1 but I couldn't understand Marx's argument. Why is only the labor PHYSICALLY necessary for the reproduction of a good factored into its value?
