On Mon, Jan 3, 2011 at 8:52 PM, <hamilto...@aol.com> wrote:

> Your response requires the agreement to specify which school of Sharia law
> is to be employed.  So my point that Sharia "law" is not self-defining still
> stands. No?
>

Yes and no.  In the abstract, I think that your point is entirely correct.
 In principle the meaning of the term "sharia law" necessarily requires a
deeply religious act of interpretation.  That said, however, words generally
are not used in the abstract.  They certainly are not used in the abstract
within contracts.  (Or at least this is the premise of the century-long
attack on the plain meaning rule by realist and neoclassical contract law in
the 20th century.)  Rather, words are always used within the context of a
particular transaction and a particular contract. As a matter of ordinary
contract interpretation, the term "sharia law" must be construed in light of
the context in which it is used.  Frankly, in almost any contract involving
commercial arbitration it will probably be possible from the context to
determine the body of fiqh that the parties expect to apply.  The content of
that fiqh may then be determined using expert witnesses, just as one would
determine the content of UK law.  Furthermore, it is extremely unlikely that
the parties to such a contract intend for the arbiter to engage in ijtihad
rather than taqlid.  Ijtihad is the kind of thing that really elite jurists,
religious radicals, or semi-mythical geniuses of the past did.  It is not
the sort of thing that one expects from your run of the mill Islamic
arbiter.  It would be really weird to suppose that the drafters of the
contract understood the terms are requiring a deeply religious act of
interpretation.

Let me give an example:  Suppose that a man enters into a contract with
another man in which he promises to pay $10,000 in return for which the
other man promises to convey a parcel of land to "the church."  Now in the
abstract the term "church" is fraught with theological complexities and
difficulties.  Ecclesialogy varies greatly from Christian sect to Christian
sect.  On the other hand, if both men have spent their lives attending the
1st Baptist Church of Hendersonville, Kentucky and they engaged in
negotiations in which the first man said he wanted to purchase the land from
the second man to build an extension to the sanctuary, a court is going to
be able to construe the term "church" without theological pyrotechnics and
without shaking liberal democracy to its foundations.  This is true even
though the term "church" standing alone in the contract doesn't contain any
kind of explicit gloss.  My only point is that rather than exocticizing
Islamic law with a few well chosen examples from the popular press, courts
ought to understand how it gets used in the context of the contract and
transactions they are called on to adjudicate.

>
> Marci
> Sent from my Verizon Wireless BlackBerry
>
> -----Original Message-----
> From: Nathan Oman <nate.o...@gmail.com>
> Sender: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu
> Date: Mon, 3 Jan 2011 20:46:47
> To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics<religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu>
> Reply-To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics <
> religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu>
> Subject: Re: May American court appoint only Muslim arbitrators, pursuant
> to
>        an arb...
>
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