Re: Better Than the Chinese Room

2014-02-06 Thread Stathis Papaioannou
On 5 February 2014 23:32, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 On 05 Feb 2014, at 07:54, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:

 To be clear, what I find problematic is the question of whether
 consciousness can cause someone to refer to it.


 That is a good question. (I will answer it positively).




 It can't do this by
 definition if it's epiphenomenal.


 OK. That will be the reason why I want to discard epiphenomenalism.





 However, you can declare that you
 are conscious and while the declaration is explainable in purely
 physical terms, it may be associated with actual consciousness.
 Perhaps this is nitpicking.


 It is not nitpicking, as eventually this is the crux of the matter.

 See below.








 I don't believe that mind can act on anything except in a manner of
 speaking, but again maybe this is nitpicking. The important thing is
 that if mind had separate causal efficacy we would observe miraculous
 events in the brain, and we don't observe such events.

 Even with comp in the absence of a basic physical reality, you could
 say there is no *reason* why subjectivity should exist - it just does.


 Let us imagine that you do tell us that you are conscious.

 Now, I look at myself, and I know what I am conscious means, in some
 direct intuition, and so, I will suppose that you saying refer to that fact,
 which I understand: you are indeed conscious.

 But then you add that your consciousness has no role at all in your
 utterance of I am conscious. This seems to me  like saying I am
 conscious, but my utterance of it is the one of my body-zombie, who by some
 kind of mysterious chance happens to say a truth about me, given that you
 don't causally associate your first person observation of your consciousness
 with the utterance.

Well, I *could* be a zombie and still say that, unless you consider
the idea of zombies contradictory (which maybe it is).

 You could say I have headache, which is a first person experience, and,
 for that reason I will take an aspirin, yet the existence of that first
 person headache is not used by my brain to make me taking the aspirin. That
 seems close to non-sense to me. It prevents you to be a zombie, but makes
 you deluded in all high level person behavior.

A zombie would take an aspirin as well, wouldn't it? Otherwise its
zombie deception would be obvious.

 In fact, we don't even need to talk on consciousness. I think it makes sense
 to say that a program can have a high level causal efficacy, even when the
 behavior does not violate the laws of physics or arithmetic which supports
 that high level efficacy.

 For example, nobody will say that Deep Blue win the chess tournament,
 because this NAND receives this inputs and then (followed by a lengthy
 description of all the low level happenings).

 We will explain deep blue behavior in terms of most of its high level
 ability. We will say he lost that game because he did not recognize that
 his opponents has made a Nimzovitch entry, or he win that game because it
 tested more possibilities than the opponents.

 That will be the real (or more genuine) explanation, both for the computer
 scientists who programmed deep blue, and for the chess players.  Indeed the
 use of the NAND gates are somehow entirely irrelevant, we could have
 programmed deep blue on another type of machine.

 As complex entities, we need to have higher level description and
 explanation, and are necessarily ignorant of our lower levels, which might
 only be the support of our explanation, and is different from the more
 genuine high level explanation.

 In that way, we can recover the sense of I take an aspirin because I have a
 persistent headache since the morning.

 God might know that your body takes an aspirin because it obeys to SWE
 equation, but the SWE is only a context in which a person with a first
 person headache experience can take an aspirin. It is not the cause or the
 explanation of your behavior. You need to be God, to say that your
 consciousness has no role, and from God's view, I can make sense, but
 everything get wrong, hereby, simply because we are not in that God
 position.

 OK?

I don't really disagree with any of that, but I would still say that
chess program makes moves due to the activity of electrons in
semiconductors, not because it is exercising a particular strategy
except in a manner of speaking.  But the substantive point I want to
make is that there is no downward causation, for if there were we
would observe magical events. If you accept that then I agree with
you, any apparent disagreement is really just semantics. I don't think
Craig accepts that: he agrees that there are no magical events in the
brain but, inconsistently, he also believes that the brain exhibits
behaviour not entirely explained by the physics.

 I am not sure if I succeed to be as clear as I would like. I do think that
 you make a confusion between G* and S4Grz.

 G* knows that []p = []p  p (so it knows that the body-zombie has a 

Re: Better Than the Chinese Room

2014-02-06 Thread Stathis Papaioannou
On 5 February 2014 23:55, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:


 On Wednesday, February 5, 2014 1:57:43 AM UTC-5, stathisp wrote:

 On 5 February 2014 13:46, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote:
 
 
  On Tuesday, February 4, 2014 8:38:31 PM UTC-5, stathisp wrote:
 
  On 5 February 2014 01:31, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote:
 
   As per my answer to David: if you could show that a physical
   phenomenon of a particular type necessarily leads to consciousness,
   then anything further you have to say, such as remarks about how
   weird
   it sounds, will not negate it.
  
  
   That's the same as saying If I were proved right, then I couldn't
   have
   been
   wrong.
  
   The fact though that we cannot show a physical phenomena which
   necessarily
   leads to consciousness and there is no reason to suppose that one
   could
   ever
   be shown (especially since 'showing' only happens within
   consciousness,
   or
   else consciousness would be redundant).
 
  The proof is the argument I have cited several times. If it's valid,
  any objections are then pointless, like the Pythagoreans complaining
  that irrational numbers offend their sense of aesthetics. You have not
  shown that the argument is invalid.
 
 
  The argument can't be shown to be invalid, because the problem with the
  argument is that there is a universe which exists outside of all
  argument,
  through which argument itself is defined. The argument may be able to
  silence objections, but that doesn't mean the argument is correct.

 Again, that's like the Pythagoreans deciding to suppress the evidence
 for irrational numbers because they believed in a higher aesthetic
 cause.


 That's like having to go back more than 2000 years to find a fallacious
 political justification for suppressing my argument rather than a reason
 that makes sense.

My point is that an argument that is logically sound trumps any
aesthetic objections to its conclusion.


-- 
Stathis Papaioannou

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Re: Better Than the Chinese Room

2014-02-06 Thread LizR
On 6 February 2014 21:59, Stathis Papaioannou stath...@gmail.com wrote:


 My point is that an argument that is logically sound trumps any
 aesthetic objections to its conclusion.


Naah, I don't like the sound of that.




:-)

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Re: Eidetic memory and the comp hypothesis

2014-02-06 Thread Richard Ruquist
On Thu, Feb 6, 2014 at 2:36 AM, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 So he's saying the number of proteins you COULD make from around 60 amino
 acids exceeds the Lloyd limit - not that there in fact is a Lloyd limit's
 worth of information stored in a given protein, brain, organism or even
 biosphere.


No. Read again



 I'm not sure how significant that is. I mean, my hard drive could in
 principle store something like 2 ^ 4,500,000,000,000 possible combinations
 of bits, which is well above Lloyd's limit, but as far as I know it isn't
 alive.

 (Although it does keep refusing to open the DVD bay doors...)




 On 6 February 2014 20:29, Richard Ruquist yann...@gmail.com wrote:

 Opps. My memory is not eidetic as well. Here is the pertinent quote from
 Davies article referenced above:

 For example, proteins are made of strings of 20 different sorts of amino
 acids, and the combinatoric possibility space has more dimensions than the
 Lloyd limit of 10^ 120 when the number of amino acids is greater than
 about 60 (Davies, 2004). Curiously, 60 amino acids is about the size of
 the smallest
 functional protein, suggesting that the threshold for life might
 correspond to the threshold
 for strong emergence, supporting the contention that life is an emergent
 phenomenon (in
 the strong sense of emergence).


 On Thu, Feb 6, 2014 at 2:22 AM, Richard Ruquist yann...@gmail.comwrote:




 On Thu, Feb 6, 2014 at 12:31 AM, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 This is a very interesting point. What is the estimated capacity of the
 human brain? I seem to recalls some 10^17 bits being mentioned somewhere,
 or at least that figure has stuck in my mind (but not having an eidetic
 memory, or much of a normal one, I can't say where from).


 PCW Davies claims that a human brain neuron requires about 10^120 bits;
 and therefore, since this is the Lloyd Limit for the available bits in
 our observable universe,
  neurons may be at the threshold for consciousness.
 http://arxiv.org/ftp/astro-ph/papers/0602/0602420.pdf



 On 6 February 2014 15:58, Richard Ruquist yann...@gmail.com wrote:


 An aspect of my string cosmology is that the metaverse contains a
 4D-space (in which one space axis is time)
 that records every event that ever happened in this and every universe
 much like the Akashic Records.
 Eidetics and gurus can apparently time travel in this block-space.
 Richard


 On Wed, Feb 5, 2014 at 8:32 PM, Pierz pier...@gmail.com wrote:

 The phenomenon of eidetic (photographic) memory is well established
 as a reality. For an example of what it means, read the top answer to 
 this quora.com
 questionhttp://www.quora.com/digest/track_click?hash=2e8ec7de05b636790212092c83f0936eaoid=pLlVYjWVKaaoty=2ty_data=4012999ty=1digest_id=241884556click_pos=1st=1391558946766537source=3stories=1_L4sR6imoEQB%7C1_aytbQbnb2zW%7C1_jA8otFvN9FH%7C1_4XH6bzBFPwr%7C1_4TMBUpDzRpy%7C1_8f6Kgdm4jXW%7C1_XDaAF5TDFVy%7C1_zsSejxTjfe6v=2aty=4.
 People with this gift/disability remember every moment of their lives in 
 *perfect
 *detail. To me this raises real questions about the comp hypothesis
 and the 'yes doctor'. Consider the 'RAM' required for this type of 
 recall.
 Memories are 3d and 'retina' resolution. If we consider that an hour of
 Blu-ray footage consumes about 30Gb, then some rough calculations show 
 that
 Blu-ray quality footage of an entire life of 60 years would consume 
 around
 17,000 terabytes of storage. But these memories include tactile, 
 olfactory
 and cognitive channels as well as visual and auditory information, and of
 course the resolution of the visual system is far better than Blu-ray. 
 I'd
 take a rough guess and say that full recording of a person's mental
 experience in all external and internal channels would have to require
 hundreds or even thousands of times the bandwidth of Blu-ray. But even at
 what I'd think would be an extremely conservative estimate of a hundred
 times, we're up near two million terabytes (two exabytes). What's more,
 there appears to be no strain, no sign of running out of space at all, as
 if capacity was simply not an issue. This type of example makes me really
 question whether digital prosthetics are a real possibility at all - it
 looks to me strongly suggestive of a totally different way of recording
 information, or even of the possibility that recording and storage are 
 the
 wrong metaphor entirely. 'Christian' in the above quora response says 
 that
 he has little means of distinguishing a memory from a live experience,
 making for a very confusing mental life. This type of memory looks more
 like a kind of time travel than a recording. Perhaps this is still
 compatible with Bruno's version of comp - the universal subject 
 inhabiting
 the pure space of Number - but it's more problematic for step one of the
 whole argument that leads to this vision, namely saying 'yes' to a 
 digital
 brain.



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Re: Block Universes

2014-02-06 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Brent,

Yes, and of course the fact that the age of the universe will pretty 
certainly be calculated everywhere in the universe as the same 13.7 billion 
years strongly suggest there is a common present universal present moment 
or time.

Edgar



On Wednesday, February 5, 2014 7:38:03 PM UTC-5, Brent wrote:

  On 2/5/2014 9:31 AM, Jesse Mazer wrote:
  
 --question 1 dealt with the question of how YOU would define p-time 
 simultaneity in a cosmological model where there's no way to slice the 4D 
 spacetime into a series of 3D surfaces such that the density of matter is 
 perfectly uniform on each slice (and that uniform can be characterized by 
 the parameter Omega), unlike in the simple FLRW model where matter is 
 assumed to be distributed in this perfectly uniform way.


 I don't see that perfect uniformity is necessary.  We have calculated our 
 epoch relative to the CMB as 13.8By.  I assume any other scientific species 
 in the universe could do the same and so say whether they were 'at the same 
 time' as measured by expansion of the cosmos.  I don't see how the 
 existence of galaxies and galaxy clusters precludes this kind of 
 measurement.

 Brent
  

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Re: Eidetic memory and the comp hypothesis

2014-02-06 Thread Edgar L. Owen
PIerz,

Of course the very concept of true eidetic memory is totally impossible. 
The total amount of data in the local environment in any single second is 
many orders of magnitude greater than the total capacity of a human brain. 

No one comes even vaguely close e.g. to remembering the position of every 
leaf in the trees around him in a forest, or every leaf of grass and all 
the insects. All this stuff is individually viewable at any given time but 
simply can't be remembered, much less how all that is changing every second.

What is really meant by eidetic memory is just memory superior in detail to 
ordinary memory. It's just one more of the many buzz concepts scientists 
invent without thinking through the actual implications..

Edgar

On Wednesday, February 5, 2014 8:32:51 PM UTC-5, Pierz wrote:

 The phenomenon of eidetic (photographic) memory is well established as a 
 reality. For an example of what it means, read the top answer to this 
 quora.com 
 questionhttp://www.quora.com/digest/track_click?hash=2e8ec7de05b636790212092c83f0936eaoid=pLlVYjWVKaaoty=2ty_data=4012999ty=1digest_id=241884556click_pos=1st=1391558946766537source=3stories=1_L4sR6imoEQB%7C1_aytbQbnb2zW%7C1_jA8otFvN9FH%7C1_4XH6bzBFPwr%7C1_4TMBUpDzRpy%7C1_8f6Kgdm4jXW%7C1_XDaAF5TDFVy%7C1_zsSejxTjfe6v=2aty=4.
  
 People with this gift/disability remember every moment of their lives in 
 *perfect 
 *detail. To me this raises real questions about the comp hypothesis and 
 the 'yes doctor'. Consider the 'RAM' required for this type of recall. 
 Memories are 3d and 'retina' resolution. If we consider that an hour of 
 Blu-ray footage consumes about 30Gb, then some rough calculations show that 
 Blu-ray quality footage of an entire life of 60 years would consume around 
 17,000 terabytes of storage. But these memories include tactile, olfactory 
 and cognitive channels as well as visual and auditory information, and of 
 course the resolution of the visual system is far better than Blu-ray. I'd 
 take a rough guess and say that full recording of a person's mental 
 experience in all external and internal channels would have to require 
 hundreds or even thousands of times the bandwidth of Blu-ray. But even at 
 what I'd think would be an extremely conservative estimate of a hundred 
 times, we're up near two million terabytes (two exabytes). What's more, 
 there appears to be no strain, no sign of running out of space at all, as 
 if capacity was simply not an issue. This type of example makes me really 
 question whether digital prosthetics are a real possibility at all - it 
 looks to me strongly suggestive of a totally different way of recording 
 information, or even of the possibility that recording and storage are the 
 wrong metaphor entirely. 'Christian' in the above quora response says that 
 he has little means of distinguishing a memory from a live experience, 
 making for a very confusing mental life. This type of memory looks more 
 like a kind of time travel than a recording. Perhaps this is still 
 compatible with Bruno's version of comp - the universal subject inhabiting 
 the pure space of Number - but it's more problematic for step one of the 
 whole argument that leads to this vision, namely saying 'yes' to a digital 
 brain.





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Re: Better Than the Chinese Room

2014-02-06 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Thursday, February 6, 2014 3:59:45 AM UTC-5, stathisp wrote:

 On 5 February 2014 23:55, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com javascript: 
 wrote: 
  
  
  On Wednesday, February 5, 2014 1:57:43 AM UTC-5, stathisp wrote: 
  
  On 5 February 2014 13:46, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote: 
   
   
   On Tuesday, February 4, 2014 8:38:31 PM UTC-5, stathisp wrote: 
   
   On 5 February 2014 01:31, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com 
 wrote: 
   
As per my answer to David: if you could show that a physical 
phenomenon of a particular type necessarily leads to 
 consciousness, 
then anything further you have to say, such as remarks about how 
weird 
it sounds, will not negate it. 


That's the same as saying If I were proved right, then I couldn't 
have 
been 
wrong. 

The fact though that we cannot show a physical phenomena which 
necessarily 
leads to consciousness and there is no reason to suppose that one 
could 
ever 
be shown (especially since 'showing' only happens within 
consciousness, 
or 
else consciousness would be redundant). 
   
   The proof is the argument I have cited several times. If it's valid, 
   any objections are then pointless, like the Pythagoreans complaining 
   that irrational numbers offend their sense of aesthetics. You have 
 not 
   shown that the argument is invalid. 
   
   
   The argument can't be shown to be invalid, because the problem with 
 the 
   argument is that there is a universe which exists outside of all 
   argument, 
   through which argument itself is defined. The argument may be able to 
   silence objections, but that doesn't mean the argument is correct. 
  
  Again, that's like the Pythagoreans deciding to suppress the evidence 
  for irrational numbers because they believed in a higher aesthetic 
  cause. 
  
  
  That's like having to go back more than 2000 years to find a fallacious 
  political justification for suppressing my argument rather than a reason 
  that makes sense. 

 My point is that an argument that is logically sound trumps any 
 aesthetic objections to its conclusion. 


That's because you identify with the logical aesthetic personally. If 
someone changes your brain chemistry, you could believe the opposite, or if 
you were tortured enough, you would love Big Brother.

Craig
 



 -- 
 Stathis Papaioannou 


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Re: Eidetic memory and the comp hypothesis

2014-02-06 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Richard,

In a weak sense this Akashic records stuff has some merit.

The theory I present in my book is that reality is computational. This 
means that the computational interactions of information forms changes 
those information forms and those changes encode prior information states 
in a distributed fashion among subsequent information states. 

I call this 'The Sherlock Holmes Principle'. Which states that all current 
information contains distributed traces of past information, all the way 
back to the big bang. Thus given sufficient capability it is possible to 
'read' past information states from current information states. This is of 
course obviously the basis of scientific method and all knowledge but it 
does have deeper implications.

Why? Because it implies that everything without exception is only the 
information of what it is. And the information of what it is is the current 
result of all its past computational interactions, Thus everything without 
exception is its information history, its computational history. And that 
all past information still exists in a distributed manner in all current 
information (subject to some constraints imposed by quantum granularity). 
And some other stuff as well...

So in that sense, it is possible to theoretically read all information from 
the current information state of the universe.

Edgar

On Wednesday, February 5, 2014 9:58:32 PM UTC-5, yanniru wrote:


 An aspect of my string cosmology is that the metaverse contains a 4D-space 
 (in which one space axis is time)
 that records every event that ever happened in this and every universe 
 much like the Akashic Records.
 Eidetics and gurus can apparently time travel in this block-space.
 Richard


 On Wed, Feb 5, 2014 at 8:32 PM, Pierz pie...@gmail.com javascript:wrote:

 The phenomenon of eidetic (photographic) memory is well established as a 
 reality. For an example of what it means, read the top answer to this 
 quora.com 
 questionhttp://www.quora.com/digest/track_click?hash=2e8ec7de05b636790212092c83f0936eaoid=pLlVYjWVKaaoty=2ty_data=4012999ty=1digest_id=241884556click_pos=1st=1391558946766537source=3stories=1_L4sR6imoEQB%7C1_aytbQbnb2zW%7C1_jA8otFvN9FH%7C1_4XH6bzBFPwr%7C1_4TMBUpDzRpy%7C1_8f6Kgdm4jXW%7C1_XDaAF5TDFVy%7C1_zsSejxTjfe6v=2aty=4.
  
 People with this gift/disability remember every moment of their lives in 
 *perfect 
 *detail. To me this raises real questions about the comp hypothesis and 
 the 'yes doctor'. Consider the 'RAM' required for this type of recall. 
 Memories are 3d and 'retina' resolution. If we consider that an hour of 
 Blu-ray footage consumes about 30Gb, then some rough calculations show that 
 Blu-ray quality footage of an entire life of 60 years would consume around 
 17,000 terabytes of storage. But these memories include tactile, olfactory 
 and cognitive channels as well as visual and auditory information, and of 
 course the resolution of the visual system is far better than Blu-ray. I'd 
 take a rough guess and say that full recording of a person's mental 
 experience in all external and internal channels would have to require 
 hundreds or even thousands of times the bandwidth of Blu-ray. But even at 
 what I'd think would be an extremely conservative estimate of a hundred 
 times, we're up near two million terabytes (two exabytes). What's more, 
 there appears to be no strain, no sign of running out of space at all, as 
 if capacity was simply not an issue. This type of example makes me really 
 question whether digital prosthetics are a real possibility at all - it 
 looks to me strongly suggestive of a totally different way of recording 
 information, or even of the possibility that recording and storage are the 
 wrong metaphor entirely. 'Christian' in the above quora response says that 
 he has little means of distinguishing a memory from a live experience, 
 making for a very confusing mental life. This type of memory looks more 
 like a kind of time travel than a recording. Perhaps this is still 
 compatible with Bruno's version of comp - the universal subject inhabiting 
 the pure space of Number - but it's more problematic for step one of the 
 whole argument that leads to this vision, namely saying 'yes' to a digital 
 brain.



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Re: Real science versus interpretations of science

2014-02-06 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Ghibbsa,

Hmmm, guess I was a little over optimistic in my praise! I'll retract it if 
you like. Your previous post must have been a temporary aberration!
:-)

Best,
Edgar

On Wednesday, February 5, 2014 11:02:23 PM UTC-5, ghi...@gmail.com wrote:


 On Wednesday, February 5, 2014 3:18:18 PM UTC, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

 Dear Ghibbsa,

 Thanks for the warm and friendly tone of your posts! That's rather the 
 exception here and you set a high standard and a great example for other 
 posters.

  
 I think you've been treated really well. 
  
  
  
  It's kind of a given people reject a theory unless they say otherwise. 

  

 I certainly disagree with your opinion on Bruno's theory

  
 All I remember saying was the structure was really excellent. You haven't 
 looked at it to disagree
  

 and some other things as well, but you always present them in a friendly 
 intelligent manner benefiting an objective discussion of MY ideas among 
 fried nds. 

  
 Only tongue in cheek but I've corrected your sentence for how you show up 
 to other people.
  

 It always baffles me why so many here and elsewhere get so incensed and 
 combatative when discussing what are just abstract ideas and theories. So 
 many seem to have such a strong personal investment in their beliefs which 
 makes one suspect they are as much faith based as based in reason.

  
 Get your house order in dude. They listened and criticized and at no point 
 gratuitously trashed your theory. What did you do for them?


 But thankfully you seem to be the happy exception here. Much appreciated!

  
 the quality I admire is to see someone treat praise no different than 
 criticism.
  



  
 On Tuesday, February 4, 2014 6:29:59 PM UTC-5, ghi...@gmail.com wrote:


 On Tuesday, February 4, 2014 7:13:02 PM UTC, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

 Ghibbsa,

 I think of my book and theories more as meta-science or philosophy, 

  
 I think that's reasonable but...
  

 but the topics treated are what nearly everyone else considers to be 
 science.

  
 Yeah I agree with this. I don't have the skills to feedback on the 
 quality of your theories, but at the structure level which is where I get 
 interested more, I can certainly say I think many of your explanations have 
 good structure and approach that is over and above philosophy. It's not 
 science, but no one would expect to cover the breadth you have and get a 
 science finish. But you know, you've brought it to a good intermediary 
 position. I wouldn't be able to say that about the vast majority of 
 philosophy as in most cases the decisions already embedded as to approach 
 have usually ruled out a science standard in the future.  


 In my view MWI, block universes, wavefunction collapse, etc. none of 
 these are real science, only interpretations of science.

  
 Well look...my view at this stage would be that we'd all have to do a 
 lot of work to get our inner visions of science aligned, for statements 
 like yours above to be computable (by me). What I would say is that I 
 wouldn't read this list if I wasn't interested in the people and their 
 ideas. I enjoy 'trying on' ideas even if deep down I know my gut is never 
 going to let me buy into it on a long term basis. 
  
 If you're up for suggestions, I'd definitely recommend you try that out 
 for yourself. You're obviously very strong minded, so there's little 
 vulnerability there that you'll try on an idea that isn't your theory, or 
 that is a criticism to your theory, and find yourself whirled off into 
 someone else's vision never to see your own again :o) Try itit's 
 fun...and you'll find the knock-on effects interesting in other ways. 

  

 Yes, if we understand reality better it should definitely lead to 
 better real science, and most certainly to better understanding. 
 Meta-science helps us to UNDERSTAND real science in human terms.

  
 What you say is reasonable. Like a lot of people I am in a long term 
 work on a theory, and you probably know yourself that one of the downsides 
 is that there can come a time when your world view is so different that 
 it's almost alien to othersand also that it is isolating because you 
 might not agree with anything anymore, but might not be ready to explain 
 why. I think that's something a lot of people on lists like this know 
 about. One of the things I really like about reading Bruno, for example, 
 is all the crazy talk about worlds and dreams and things being impossible 
 to communicate. I really relate to all that as a position to be in !  


 Your last comments seem to have to do with DOING science, with 
 scientific method, rather than the actual science that gets done.

  
 That's a fair comment. Something I personally try to remember in this 
 sort of situation, is that the other person - you - probably defined 
 science with a sort of context, or purpose, in mind. I'm sure you have more 
 to say about the nature of science. It might be a case of you, you used a 
 working definition 

Re: Block Universes

2014-02-06 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Jesse,

The Hubble age of the universe just means that most observers throughout 
the unvierse calculate nearly identical CLOCK times for that age. There 
will be local differences but these will mostly be small due to averaging 
effects over the life of the universe.

This Hubble age is NOT its p-time age, which is the p-time distance from 
the present moment to the big ban and which will be the 'same' (in a 
topological rather than a dimensionally measurable sense) for all 
observers. But recall that p-time is not a directly measurable quantity so 
arbitrary precision does not apply. You still haven't grasped the concept 
correctly. P-time has no direct measure, because the present moment is that 
in which all measures, including those of clock time, are computed. 

Nevertheless the fact of existence of all observers and thus of everything 
in the present moment is a direct empirical observation. Just like 
consciousness it is not subject to measure, but that doesn't mean it 
doesn't exist.

Edgar

On Thursday, February 6, 2014 12:47:05 AM UTC-5, jessem wrote:



 On Wed, Feb 5, 2014 at 7:38 PM, meekerdb meek...@verizon.netjavascript:
  wrote:

  On 2/5/2014 9:31 AM, Jesse Mazer wrote:
  
 --question 1 dealt with the question of how YOU would define p-time 
 simultaneity in a cosmological model where there's no way to slice the 4D 
 spacetime into a series of 3D surfaces such that the density of matter is 
 perfectly uniform on each slice (and that uniform can be characterized by 
 the parameter Omega), unlike in the simple FLRW model where matter is 
 assumed to be distributed in this perfectly uniform way.


 I don't see that perfect uniformity is necessary.  We have calculated our 
 epoch relative to the CMB as 13.8By.  I assume any other scientific species 
 in the universe could do the same and so say whether they were 'at the same 
 time' as measured by expansion of the cosmos.  I don't see how the 
 existence of galaxies and galaxy clusters precludes this kind of 
 measurement.



 Using the CMB may give an approximate answer, but would you argue it could 
 distinguish between different simultaneity definitions that agree 
 approximately when averaged over large scales, but disagree somewhat about 
 the details of simultaneity in highly curved regions? For example, could 
 the CMB be used to define a unique definition of simultaneity in the 
 neighborhood of a black hole (where coordinate systems like Schwarzschild 
 coordinates and Eddington-Finkelstein coordinates and Kruskal-Szekeres 
 coordinates give very different definitions of simultaneity)? Edgar isn't 
 just claiming some approximate pragmatic truth about simultaneity, he's 
 claiming an absolute and exact truth about simultaneity in all 
 circumstances, I was asking if he thinks this truth can be empirically 
 determined to arbitrary precision even in principle, and if so what 
 empirical observations would be used. 

 Jesse

  


 Brent
  
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Re: Block Universes

2014-02-06 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Ghibbsa,

But it IS true that Andromedans must be doing something at this very 
present moment. That's a key insight to the theory.

The fact that we can't determine exactly what the clock time is there of 
that present moment, or the fact that they might be doing things faster or 
slower than we are doesn't falsify that they are doing something right now. 
The fact that we may not be able to determine what they are doing, doesn't 
mean they aren't doing something

After all that's also true of any two observers including e.g. astronauts 
on the space station. Do we doubt that they are actually doing something up 
there right now in this present moment? No, of course not. And the 
difference with Andromeda is only a matter of degree. thus if we can claim 
a present moment for the space station, we can for Andromeda also.

Edgar

On Thursday, February 6, 2014 1:26:37 AM UTC-5, ghi...@gmail.com wrote:


 On Wednesday, February 5, 2014 3:53:16 PM UTC, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

 Jesse,

 A couple of points in response:

 1. Even WITHOUT my present moment, the well established fact of a 4-d 
 universe does NOT imply block time nor require it. Clock time still flows 
 just fine in SR and GR. No clock time simultaneity of distant (relativistic 
 is a better descriptor) events does NOT imply time is not flowing at those 
 events. This is quite clear. It's a fundamental assumption of relativity 
 that time flows.

 In fact relativity itself conclusively falsifies block time as it 
 requires everything to be at one and only one point in clock time due to 
 the fact that everything always travels at the speed of light through 
 spacetime. I find it baffling that so many can't grasp this simple fact.


 2. You complain about me not answering a few of your questions. As I've 
 explained before I have limited time to post here because running my 
 business keeps me very busy.

 And please note that a lot of my posts have received NO answers at all 
 either, e.g.

 a. Several major posts, some as new topics, on my theory of how spacetime 
 emerges from quantum events. Apparently this has just sailed over 
 everyone's heads with not a single meaningful comment, not even any 
 negative ones which is pretty surprising among this crowd! Apparently no 
 one is interested in understanding the nature of time at the quantum level?

 b. My post on a solution to Newton's Bucket. Also no relevant responses.

 c. Several thought experiments lending very strong support to my present 
 moment theory, posted just a couple days ago. Again zero response. And 
 weren't those directed to YOU?

 d. Several thought experiments designed to dig into the fine points of 
 various aspects of time dilation. Again only a vague comment or two on 
 'asymmetry' but zero actual analysis of the points I raised.

 e. Several other new topics on basic issues of science and epistemology. 
 Again no relevant responses.

 So don't be so quick to criticize me for not responding to every one of 
 your questions. I received several hundred emails a day. I respond to most, 
 delete some, but have a list of several dozen from this forum I hope to 
 reply to given time. And when I do reply to posts with substantive topics, 
 I always try to give the time to reply carefully and reply only when my 
 responses have been well thought out...

 So with limited posting time I have to be selective in my responses. 
 Others here seem to have a lot more time available to post here and wish I 
 did also...

 As for your comment that you have no idea what moving in clock time 
 could mean pull your head out of your physics books and watch your watch 
 for a little while and see if the hands are moving. If not, you are in 
 block time. If they are, you are in the normal reality that everyone else 
 is. And actually yes, the fact that clock time does move perceptibly DOES 
 imply a separate present moment in which clock time moves. You've hit on 
 one of the major arguments FOR a present moment. 

 But I know this direct observation that you can repeat over and over and 
 over and confirm, (which has the same status of all scientific observations 
 and measurements) doesn't carry any weight at all with you. However in 
 denying it you are denying the most basic fact of your own existence.

 Edgar

  
 The way I used to think p-time, that I can explicitly remember, was 
 occasionally looking up into the starry night at Andromeda and saying to 
 someone no matter where Andromeda is now these millions years after where 
 it is up in the sky there, wherever it is if there are thinking people up 
 there, then some of them could be thinking their thoughts right now, maybe 
 looking right back at me, and that's a sense in which things are connected 
  
 Or something like that. And for me that would be a hugely important sense 
 of connection. And it was. It's also - I think - the sense in which p-time 
 would need to be true, given it's an idea deriving from that kind of 
 intuitive 

Re: Block Universes

2014-02-06 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Brent,

Here once again you are talking about clock time simultaneity. And here 
again I agree. But you still don't grasp that is NOT the common p-time 
present moment IN WHICH clock times are either simultaneous or not.

Edgar



On Thursday, February 6, 2014 1:45:24 AM UTC-5, Brent wrote:

  On 2/5/2014 9:47 PM, Jesse Mazer wrote:
  
  

 On Wed, Feb 5, 2014 at 7:38 PM, meekerdb meek...@verizon.netjavascript:
  wrote:

  On 2/5/2014 9:31 AM, Jesse Mazer wrote:
  
 --question 1 dealt with the question of how YOU would define p-time 
 simultaneity in a cosmological model where there's no way to slice the 4D 
 spacetime into a series of 3D surfaces such that the density of matter is 
 perfectly uniform on each slice (and that uniform can be characterized by 
 the parameter Omega), unlike in the simple FLRW model where matter is 
 assumed to be distributed in this perfectly uniform way.


 I don't see that perfect uniformity is necessary.  We have calculated our 
 epoch relative to the CMB as 13.8By.  I assume any other scientific species 
 in the universe could do the same and so say whether they were 'at the same 
 time' as measured by expansion of the cosmos.  I don't see how the 
 existence of galaxies and galaxy clusters precludes this kind of 
 measurement.
  

  
  Using the CMB may give an approximate answer, but would you argue it 
 could distinguish between different simultaneity definitions that agree 
 approximately when averaged over large scales, but disagree somewhat about 
 the details of simultaneity in highly curved regions? For example, could 
 the CMB be used to define a unique definition of simultaneity in the 
 neighborhood of a black hole (where coordinate systems like Schwarzschild 
 coordinates and Eddington-Finkelstein coordinates and Kruskal-Szekeres 
 coordinates give very different definitions of simultaneity)? Edgar isn't 
 just claiming some approximate pragmatic truth about simultaneity, he's 
 claiming an absolute and exact truth about simultaneity in all 
 circumstances, I was asking if he thinks this truth can be empirically 
 determined to arbitrary precision even in principle, and if so what 
 empirical observations would be used.
   

 Of course it can't give great precision because the recombination event 
 must have had significant duration.  But aside from all the practical 
 problems I don't see a problem in principle.  From the CMB to a given 
 4-point in the universe there is a world line that is longest and that 
 length can be used as a t-label for that point. It may be a rather 
 convoluted world line near a BH, but I think it will still exist.  That's 
 what you would call the co-moving coordinate time.  Of course there are 
 other coordinate times that imply different 3-surfaces of simultaneity.  
 Ned Wright discusses several in his UCLA tutorial.  Edgar's error is not 
 that you can't define simultaneity, it's that you can't define a *unique* 
 simultaneity.  Some ways have some physical motiviation, i.e. they make 
 some calculation easier because they incorporate some physical symmetry.  
 That's what the idealized FLRW model does.  Even if you could measure the 
 co-moving time I suggest above it would be useless because it would 
 introduce all the bumps that you want to average over anyway.  I'm just 
 saying the bumps don't prevent its definition.

 Brent
  

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Re: Block Universes

2014-02-06 Thread Jesse Mazer
On Thu, Feb 6, 2014 at 1:45 AM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 2/5/2014 9:47 PM, Jesse Mazer wrote:



 On Wed, Feb 5, 2014 at 7:38 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 2/5/2014 9:31 AM, Jesse Mazer wrote:

 --question 1 dealt with the question of how YOU would define p-time
 simultaneity in a cosmological model where there's no way to slice the 4D
 spacetime into a series of 3D surfaces such that the density of matter is
 perfectly uniform on each slice (and that uniform can be characterized by
 the parameter Omega), unlike in the simple FLRW model where matter is
 assumed to be distributed in this perfectly uniform way.


 I don't see that perfect uniformity is necessary.  We have calculated our
 epoch relative to the CMB as 13.8By.  I assume any other scientific species
 in the universe could do the same and so say whether they were 'at the same
 time' as measured by expansion of the cosmos.  I don't see how the
 existence of galaxies and galaxy clusters precludes this kind of
 measurement.



  Using the CMB may give an approximate answer, but would you argue it
 could distinguish between different simultaneity definitions that agree
 approximately when averaged over large scales, but disagree somewhat about
 the details of simultaneity in highly curved regions? For example, could
 the CMB be used to define a unique definition of simultaneity in the
 neighborhood of a black hole (where coordinate systems like Schwarzschild
 coordinates and Eddington-Finkelstein coordinates and Kruskal-Szekeres
 coordinates give very different definitions of simultaneity)? Edgar isn't
 just claiming some approximate pragmatic truth about simultaneity, he's
 claiming an absolute and exact truth about simultaneity in all
 circumstances, I was asking if he thinks this truth can be empirically
 determined to arbitrary precision even in principle, and if so what
 empirical observations would be used.


 Of course it can't give great precision because the recombination event
 must have had significant duration.  But aside from all the practical
 problems I don't see a problem in principle.  From the CMB to a given
 4-point in the universe there is a world line that is longest and that
 length can be used as a t-label for that point.


Ah, thanks, I had been thinking of it in terms of the idea that the
observer always moves in such a way that the CMB doesn't appear redshifted
or blueshifted (I don't know if that's consistently possible in a universe
with a lot of localized changes in curvature), rather than the worldline of
greatest proper time from the surface of last scattering.

Jesse

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Re: Block Universes

2014-02-06 Thread Jesse Mazer
On Thu, Feb 6, 2014 at 9:01 AM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 But recall that p-time is not a directly measurable quantity so arbitrary
 precision does not apply. You still haven't grasped the concept correctly.
 P-time has no direct measure, because the present moment is that in which
 all measures, including those of clock time, are computed.


I don't recall you ever spelling that out in conversation with me, thanks
for clarifying. In the past people had asked you about how to determine
p-time and you had said things like we should be able to compute p-time
from Omega, the curvature of the universe (in the post at
http://www.mail-archive.com/everything-list@googlegroups.com/msg47450.html).
So if you now say that determining which events are simultaneous in
p-time is fundamentally impossible for any being within the universe, that
answers what I was wondering about in question #1.

Jesse




 Nevertheless the fact of existence of all observers and thus of everything
 in the present moment is a direct empirical observation. Just like
 consciousness it is not subject to measure, but that doesn't mean it
 doesn't exist.

 Edgar

 On Thursday, February 6, 2014 12:47:05 AM UTC-5, jessem wrote:



 On Wed, Feb 5, 2014 at 7:38 PM, meekerdb meek...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 2/5/2014 9:31 AM, Jesse Mazer wrote:

 --question 1 dealt with the question of how YOU would define p-time
 simultaneity in a cosmological model where there's no way to slice the 4D
 spacetime into a series of 3D surfaces such that the density of matter is
 perfectly uniform on each slice (and that uniform can be characterized by
 the parameter Omega), unlike in the simple FLRW model where matter is
 assumed to be distributed in this perfectly uniform way.


 I don't see that perfect uniformity is necessary.  We have calculated
 our epoch relative to the CMB as 13.8By.  I assume any other scientific
 species in the universe could do the same and so say whether they were 'at
 the same time' as measured by expansion of the cosmos.  I don't see how the
 existence of galaxies and galaxy clusters precludes this kind of
 measurement.



 Using the CMB may give an approximate answer, but would you argue it
 could distinguish between different simultaneity definitions that agree
 approximately when averaged over large scales, but disagree somewhat about
 the details of simultaneity in highly curved regions? For example, could
 the CMB be used to define a unique definition of simultaneity in the
 neighborhood of a black hole (where coordinate systems like Schwarzschild
 coordinates and Eddington-Finkelstein coordinates and Kruskal-Szekeres
 coordinates give very different definitions of simultaneity)? Edgar isn't
 just claiming some approximate pragmatic truth about simultaneity, he's
 claiming an absolute and exact truth about simultaneity in all
 circumstances, I was asking if he thinks this truth can be empirically
 determined to arbitrary precision even in principle, and if so what
 empirical observations would be used.

 Jesse




 Brent

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Re: Block Universes

2014-02-06 Thread Quentin Anciaux
2014-02-06 Jesse Mazer laserma...@gmail.com:



 On Thu, Feb 6, 2014 at 9:01 AM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 But recall that p-time is not a directly measurable quantity so
 arbitrary precision does not apply. You still haven't grasped the concept
 correctly. P-time has no direct measure, because the present moment is that
 in which all measures, including those of clock time, are computed.


 I don't recall you ever spelling that out in conversation with me, thanks
 for clarifying. In the past people had asked you about how to determine
 p-time and you had said things like we should be able to compute p-time
 from Omega, the curvature of the universe (in the post at
 http://www.mail-archive.com/everything-list@googlegroups.com/msg47450.html). 
 So if you now say that determining which events are simultaneous in
 p-time is fundamentally impossible for any being within the universe, that
 answers what I was wondering about in question #1.


If that's the case... what good is it to entertain such p-time... it's
useless. Predict nothing, cannot be measured. What is p-time supposed to
solve ?



 Jesse




 Nevertheless the fact of existence of all observers and thus of
 everything in the present moment is a direct empirical observation. Just
 like consciousness it is not subject to measure, but that doesn't mean it
 doesn't exist.

 Edgar

 On Thursday, February 6, 2014 12:47:05 AM UTC-5, jessem wrote:



 On Wed, Feb 5, 2014 at 7:38 PM, meekerdb meek...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 2/5/2014 9:31 AM, Jesse Mazer wrote:

 --question 1 dealt with the question of how YOU would define p-time
 simultaneity in a cosmological model where there's no way to slice the 4D
 spacetime into a series of 3D surfaces such that the density of matter is
 perfectly uniform on each slice (and that uniform can be characterized by
 the parameter Omega), unlike in the simple FLRW model where matter is
 assumed to be distributed in this perfectly uniform way.


 I don't see that perfect uniformity is necessary.  We have calculated
 our epoch relative to the CMB as 13.8By.  I assume any other scientific
 species in the universe could do the same and so say whether they were 'at
 the same time' as measured by expansion of the cosmos.  I don't see how the
 existence of galaxies and galaxy clusters precludes this kind of
 measurement.



 Using the CMB may give an approximate answer, but would you argue it
 could distinguish between different simultaneity definitions that agree
 approximately when averaged over large scales, but disagree somewhat about
 the details of simultaneity in highly curved regions? For example, could
 the CMB be used to define a unique definition of simultaneity in the
 neighborhood of a black hole (where coordinate systems like Schwarzschild
 coordinates and Eddington-Finkelstein coordinates and Kruskal-Szekeres
 coordinates give very different definitions of simultaneity)? Edgar isn't
 just claiming some approximate pragmatic truth about simultaneity, he's
 claiming an absolute and exact truth about simultaneity in all
 circumstances, I was asking if he thinks this truth can be empirically
 determined to arbitrary precision even in principle, and if so what
 empirical observations would be used.

 Jesse




 Brent

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-- 
All those moments will be lost in time, like tears in rain. (Roy
Batty/Rutger Hauer)

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Visit 

Re: Better Than the Chinese Room

2014-02-06 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 05 Feb 2014, at 19:49, Craig Weinberg wrote:




On Wednesday, February 5, 2014 12:39:47 PM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 05 Feb 2014, at 14:28, Craig Weinberg wrote:

snip

Why would I share an elementary belief that I understand to be false?

Nobody ask you this. On the contrary, the idea is to start from what  
we can agree on.


Given the complexity of the problem we talk about, we might even ask  
if we agree on the logical rules.


Yes, we should.


Ah? OK.


I begin from the assumption that logical rules are abstracted from  
comparisons across sensory experiences, and therefore have no  
independent existence of their own or casual effect.


That is not assumption. It might be part of a theory about the  
relations between minds and logic.


What I meant by agreeing on logical rules was agreeing that if we  
prove in our theory some proposition A and if we prove in that theory  
some proposition B, we allow saying that we have prove the new  
proposition asserting that A and B.


This is often written in some way, like   A, B / (A  B), or

  A B
(A  B)


An important rule is the modus ponens, for example; A, A - B /  B











So my question is what does need to be explained in the axioms of  
arithmetic that I have given? For most people a first order logic  
axiom like


0 ≠ s(x)  (for all x) is simpler to understand that any statement  
involving terms like sense or aesthetic.


It's not simpler for me, or someone who doesn't know the language of  
mathematical notation.


It is conceptually simpler. I could have written instead:

0 is not equal to the successor of any number.

What are not and equal and successor if not aesthetic  
qualities in our imagination?



They are simple 3p concept shared by all scientists.
aesthetic qualities in our imagination refers to 1p.

it might be that they live through us in the form of aesthetic  
qualities in our imagination. That is even plausible with comp, and  
we can talk about that in some possible thread. nevertheless, the  
meaning of aesthetic qualities in our imagination is far more  
complex that the meaning of not, equal and successor, when  
applied to natural numbers.









Or write a longer sentence. It is intuitively trivial with the  
intended standard intuitive notion of numbers: 0, 1, 2, 3, ...


Whatever you are thinking is intuitively trivial is probably exactly  
where I am saying that everything meaningful to consciousness must be.


You talk again like the universal soul (S4Grz). Yes, from its point of  
view, consciousness is trivial. Indeed. But that's a fact of  
reality, not a theory capable of explaining that fact.


If only I could find a way to motivate you to do the hard work.










I have to figure out what is meant by s(x), which distracts me from  
the question of whether s(x) is actually fictional and derived from  
a whole history of philosophical formulation.


You confuse the intended notion with the relation between the humans  
and that notion. We can always come back on this, but you should  
appeal to such side notion only when you think that it invalidate  
the reasoning. If not you do what we call in french un procès  
d'intention, that is, you attribute to your opponents statements  
that he never did.




I wasn't trying to say anything intentional, but the framing of the  
question in mathematical terms automatically buries the roots of  
mathematics itself,


Not necessarily. And the way I proceed in the UDA guaranties that we  
don't lost the first person, as the questions are all addressed to  
her. Then the same is done in AUDA, except we need some help from the  
3p (sharable notion) self of the machine to define the first person  
(in the Theaetetus' way).








which is what I am saying is already sense and consciousness (not  
human of course).



You are correct on this, for the 1p view. That is, crazily enough, a  
theorem in arithmetic.


But that truth is not communicable by the machine itself, it can even,  
in some sense, become false if asserted.









Once you know how to read the language, the sense making that it  
took to get there, such as all of the childhood wiring of tactile  
and visual metaphors crafted by patient teachers, are elided into  
the sub-personal awareness.


We do that all the time. Again, if you are willing to argue, you  
must invoke the elision only if it invalidates the argument.


It does invalidate the argument. I'm explaining why it might seem to  
you, and to many people, that mathematical abstractions could be  
primitive. I'm saying that mathematical thoughts emerge from much  
simpler feelings and expectations which are perceptual and tangible  
rather than conceptual.


Unfortunately that is refuted.

All you can do is to find some other universal Turing system who  
primitive will look like being simpler than addition and  
multiplication, but you cannot explain the natural numbers with  
anything less than a Turing complete system.



Re: Block Universes

2014-02-06 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Jesse,

No, I've mentioned that on a number of occasions. And yes, Omega should 
give us a p-time radius if we can actually figure out how to use it to 
calculate the radius of a simply hypersphere (if it is actually the 
curvature of a standard hypersphere which I'm beginning to doubt) rather 
than of some particular FRW universe which it may be defined in terms of. 
So this remains to be seen.

But next you are putting words in my mouth. I do NOT say that determining 
which events are simultaneous in p-time is fundamentally impossible for any 
being within the universe. That's a basic misunderstanding of my model.

I say quite the opposite, that there is a common universal present moment 
of p-time that all observers in the universe exist within, because the 
present moment of p-time is the only locus of actual reality, and this is 
individually confirmed by direct observation by all observers. But 
apparently you don't accept that direct empirical observation is valid?

I also say that once that is established for each individual observer, then 
it is easy to demonstrate that that same present moment is common to all 
observers.

So there is no issue of determining which events are simultaneous in p-time 
because all events that are actually occurring occur only in the present 
moment of p-time.

As for establishing the 'simultaneity' of past moments of p-time they don't 
really have a metric associated with them though you keep trying to tell me 
that coordinate time might provide one, but I don't see that yet.

Again, like consciousness, it's a verifiable empirical observation even 
though no metric is associated with it.

Edgar


On Thursday, February 6, 2014 9:43:45 AM UTC-5, jessem wrote:



 On Thu, Feb 6, 2014 at 9:01 AM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.netjavascript:
  wrote:

 But recall that p-time is not a directly measurable quantity so 
 arbitrary precision does not apply. You still haven't grasped the concept 
 correctly. P-time has no direct measure, because the present moment is that 
 in which all measures, including those of clock time, are computed. 


 I don't recall you ever spelling that out in conversation with me, thanks 
 for clarifying. In the past people had asked you about how to determine 
 p-time and you had said things like we should be able to compute p-time 
 from Omega, the curvature of the universe (in the post at 
 http://www.mail-archive.com/everything-list@googlegroups.com/msg47450.html). 
 So if you now say that determining which events are simultaneous in 
 p-time is fundamentally impossible for any being within the universe, that 
 answers what I was wondering about in question #1.

 Jesse

  


 Nevertheless the fact of existence of all observers and thus of 
 everything in the present moment is a direct empirical observation. Just 
 like consciousness it is not subject to measure, but that doesn't mean it 
 doesn't exist.

 Edgar

 On Thursday, February 6, 2014 12:47:05 AM UTC-5, jessem wrote:



 On Wed, Feb 5, 2014 at 7:38 PM, meekerdb meek...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 2/5/2014 9:31 AM, Jesse Mazer wrote:
  
 --question 1 dealt with the question of how YOU would define p-time 
 simultaneity in a cosmological model where there's no way to slice the 4D 
 spacetime into a series of 3D surfaces such that the density of matter is 
 perfectly uniform on each slice (and that uniform can be characterized by 
 the parameter Omega), unlike in the simple FLRW model where matter is 
 assumed to be distributed in this perfectly uniform way.


 I don't see that perfect uniformity is necessary.  We have calculated 
 our epoch relative to the CMB as 13.8By.  I assume any other scientific 
 species in the universe could do the same and so say whether they were 'at 
 the same time' as measured by expansion of the cosmos.  I don't see how 
 the 
 existence of galaxies and galaxy clusters precludes this kind of 
 measurement.



 Using the CMB may give an approximate answer, but would you argue it 
 could distinguish between different simultaneity definitions that agree 
 approximately when averaged over large scales, but disagree somewhat about 
 the details of simultaneity in highly curved regions? For example, could 
 the CMB be used to define a unique definition of simultaneity in the 
 neighborhood of a black hole (where coordinate systems like Schwarzschild 
 coordinates and Eddington-Finkelstein coordinates and Kruskal-Szekeres 
 coordinates give very different definitions of simultaneity)? Edgar isn't 
 just claiming some approximate pragmatic truth about simultaneity, he's 
 claiming an absolute and exact truth about simultaneity in all 
 circumstances, I was asking if he thinks this truth can be empirically 
 determined to arbitrary precision even in principle, and if so what 
 empirical observations would be used. 

 Jesse

  


 Brent
  
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Re: Unput and Onput

2014-02-06 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 05 Feb 2014, at 20:29, Craig Weinberg wrote:




On Wednesday, February 5, 2014 12:53:56 PM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 05 Feb 2014, at 13:49, Craig Weinberg wrote:




On Wednesday, February 5, 2014 4:37:39 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 04 Feb 2014, at 18:07, Craig Weinberg wrote:


Numbers can be derived from sensible physics


That is a claim often done, but nobody has ever succeed without  
assuming Turing universality (and thus the numbers) in their  
description of physics.


Turing universality can just be a property of physics, like density  
or mass.


That is close to just nonsense (but I agree that some notorious  
physicists are attracted to this, but they don't convince me).


Can you explain why?


Because Turing universality is a mathematical notion.

It has nothing to do with physics. But physics can implement them, and  
that notion is not that obvious.









Just as Comp does a brute appropriation of qualia under 1p  
uncertainty,


No. That would be a confusion between []p and []p  p (or others).

Only God can do that confusion.

You seem to go back and forth between making qualia something  
transcendent and private, to making it somehow inevitable  
mathematically.


Yes. But it is not a back and forth. It just happen that when machine  
looks inward, and stay honest with herself, she cannot avoid some  
private transcendence. It is a theorem of arithmetic, with standard  
definition for transcendence.



If we ask ourselves, 'Does being a good mathematician require you to  
be a good artist or musician?', the answer I think is no.


I am not sure. But good mathematician is vague. Good artist also.



If we ask 'Does being a good artist or musician require us to be a  
good mathematician?' the answer is also no. Why is the relation  
between math, physics, and science so obvious,


Such relation are not obvious. That is why we discuss them. Indeed  
comp changes them radically.





but the relation between any of those and the arts is not so obvious?



because to add numbers you need few bytes. To pain Mona Lisa, you nee  
much more bytes, and richer 1p experiences.








physics can do a brute appropriation of arithmetic under material  
topology.


Some material disposition can be shown to be Turing universal. But  
this is proved in showing how such system can implement a universal  
machine (quantum or not quantum one).


Don't you just have to go to a level of description where the  
material appears granular. I don't really get the argument that all  
matter is computable but not all computation can be materialized.


Comp implies that matter is not computable. materialization is an  
emergent phenomenon on coherence conditions on infinite sum of  
computations.











It would explain why Turing universality does not apply to gases


It applies to gases. technically no usable, as it is hard to put all  
the gaz molecules


Not talking about gas molecules, I'm talking about a volume of ideal  
gas.


at the right position at the right time, but in principle, gases, in  
some volume, are Turing universal system.


You would need to control that volume with non-gaseous containers  
and valves. Gas is still not Turing universal as an uncontained  
ideal gas. Computation requires formal, object-like units...because  
arithmetic is not really universal, it is only low level.





and empty space.


Hmm... Quantum vacuum is Turing universal. I think.

I'm talking about an ideal vacuum though, not the vacuum that we  
imagine is full of particle-waves or probability juice. If I'm right  
about the sense primitive, energy exists only within matter, and not  
in space.



For classical physics, you need at least three bodies.



Computers require object-like properties to control and measure  
digitally.


Yes.







You often say, we can do that, but this makes sense only if you  
do it actually.


Some people might say that it is being done:

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=YDCwrbqHfTM
The Future of Computing -- Reuniting Bits and Atoms





I hope you are not serious. Interesting but non relevant.

This worries me when you give a blanket denial with no explanation.  
Why is it not serious? If we can make computer language out of  
stuff, then why would it not follow that computation is an emergent  
property of stuff?



Then you need to change the definition of computation. I use it in  
its standard sense, the one notion discovered by Babbage,  Church,  
Post, Turing, and Markov.











The Future of Computing -- Reuniting Bits and Atoms




as easily as physics can be derived from sensible numbers.


Physics  is not yet extracted, only the or some quantum  
tautologies, and that was not that much easy, at least for me ...


But the principle of the possibility is not difficult, at least,  
not for anyone who has ever programmed a player-missile graphic/ 
avatar/collision detection in a game.


On the contrary. Hmm... I see you have not yet grasped the 

Re: Block Universes

2014-02-06 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Quentin,

But it's NOT the case...

Edgar



On Thursday, February 6, 2014 10:52:58 AM UTC-5, Quentin Anciaux wrote:




 2014-02-06 Jesse Mazer laser...@gmail.com javascript::



 On Thu, Feb 6, 2014 at 9:01 AM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.netjavascript:
  wrote:

 But recall that p-time is not a directly measurable quantity so 
 arbitrary precision does not apply. You still haven't grasped the concept 
 correctly. P-time has no direct measure, because the present moment is that 
 in which all measures, including those of clock time, are computed. 


 I don't recall you ever spelling that out in conversation with me, thanks 
 for clarifying. In the past people had asked you about how to determine 
 p-time and you had said things like we should be able to compute p-time 
 from Omega, the curvature of the universe (in the post at 
 http://www.mail-archive.com/everything-list@googlegroups.com/msg47450.html). 
 So if you now say that determining which events are simultaneous in 
 p-time is fundamentally impossible for any being within the universe, that 
 answers what I was wondering about in question #1.


 If that's the case... what good is it to entertain such p-time... it's 
 useless. Predict nothing, cannot be measured. What is p-time supposed to 
 solve ?
  

  
 Jesse

  


 Nevertheless the fact of existence of all observers and thus of 
 everything in the present moment is a direct empirical observation. Just 
 like consciousness it is not subject to measure, but that doesn't mean it 
 doesn't exist.

 Edgar

 On Thursday, February 6, 2014 12:47:05 AM UTC-5, jessem wrote:

  

 On Wed, Feb 5, 2014 at 7:38 PM, meekerdb meek...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 2/5/2014 9:31 AM, Jesse Mazer wrote:
  
 --question 1 dealt with the question of how YOU would define p-time 
 simultaneity in a cosmological model where there's no way to slice the 4D 
 spacetime into a series of 3D surfaces such that the density of matter is 
 perfectly uniform on each slice (and that uniform can be characterized by 
 the parameter Omega), unlike in the simple FLRW model where matter is 
 assumed to be distributed in this perfectly uniform way.


 I don't see that perfect uniformity is necessary.  We have calculated 
 our epoch relative to the CMB as 13.8By.  I assume any other scientific 
 species in the universe could do the same and so say whether they were 
 'at 
 the same time' as measured by expansion of the cosmos.  I don't see how 
 the 
 existence of galaxies and galaxy clusters precludes this kind of 
 measurement.



 Using the CMB may give an approximate answer, but would you argue it 
 could distinguish between different simultaneity definitions that agree 
 approximately when averaged over large scales, but disagree somewhat about 
 the details of simultaneity in highly curved regions? For example, could 
 the CMB be used to define a unique definition of simultaneity in the 
 neighborhood of a black hole (where coordinate systems like Schwarzschild 
 coordinates and Eddington-Finkelstein coordinates and Kruskal-Szekeres 
 coordinates give very different definitions of simultaneity)? Edgar isn't 
 just claiming some approximate pragmatic truth about simultaneity, he's 
 claiming an absolute and exact truth about simultaneity in all 
 circumstances, I was asking if he thinks this truth can be empirically 
 determined to arbitrary precision even in principle, and if so what 
 empirical observations would be used. 

 Jesse

  

  
 Brent
  
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Re: Real science versus interpretations of science

2014-02-06 Thread ghibbsa

On Thursday, February 6, 2014 1:49:23 PM UTC, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

 Ghibbsa,

 Hmmm, guess I was a little over optimistic in my praise! I'll retract it 
 if you like. Your previous post must have been a temporary aberration!
 :-)

 Best,
 Edgar

 
 
what you were actually  doing was making an opportunity to complain and put 
down everyone else, with yourself firmly in the frame of how to do things 
right. Which first of all is the opposite of praising the other person, 
because it's at their expense. I mean, come on, that's an insult if 
anything. 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 

 

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Re: Real science versus interpretations of science

2014-02-06 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Ghibbsa,

Boy O boy. Reread my post to you. It was completely complementary, only to 
be met not with appreciation but with snide remarks and accusations.

Anyway I officially withdraw it as it was obviously in error...

Edgar

On Thursday, February 6, 2014 11:16:34 AM UTC-5, ghi...@gmail.com wrote:


 On Thursday, February 6, 2014 1:49:23 PM UTC, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

 Ghibbsa,

 Hmmm, guess I was a little over optimistic in my praise! I'll retract it 
 if you like. Your previous post must have been a temporary aberration!
 :-)

 Best,
 Edgar

  
  
 what you were actually  doing was making an opportunity to complain and 
 put down everyone else, with yourself firmly in the frame of how to do 
 things right. Which first of all is the opposite of praising the other 
 person, because it's at their expense. I mean, come on, that's an insult if 
 anything. 
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  

  


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Re: Block Universes

2014-02-06 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 05 Feb 2014, at 20:30, LizR wrote:


On 6 February 2014 00:07, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

OK. But time symmetry still asks fro special boundary condition, and  
seems to me to still look like using ad hoc information to select  
one reality against others. I agree with Deutsch's idea that Cramer  
transactional theory is still a MWI, + initial conditions selecting  
a reality.


Which special boundary conditions? The only ones in an EPR  
experiment are the emitter and measuring device settings.


That will not be enough, I think. You need the state of the prepared  
particle (say), and the measuring device + the result you measure on  
the particle. Or worst, the end state of the physical universe. You  
can't select one reality among all, and keep the interference right  
for arbitrary measurement, without selecting the whole reversible  
unique history.






The reality selected is the one with those settings


The setting by itself does not determine that reality.



- (anyway, I don't think the components of an EPR system can  
decohere during the experiment, or the effect would be lost - so  
there is only one reality involved).


In all other cases - where the system isn't carefully prepared to  
ensure time symmetry is preserved - the effects of time symmetry  
will be washed out by the entropy gradient and isn't noticable at  
the macro level.


I'm not talking about Cramer. I found his theory too baroque to  
understand. This is just Huw Price et al saying that logically,  
given that physics is time symmetric, we can expect certain things  
to be possible - like EPR.


EPR is not just possible, it is necessary, in QM.


The mechanics of how or if it works I leave to people able to do the  
calculations.


We can come back on this, but my personal understanding of retrieving  
unicity of outcome in the quantum description relies on fixing the  
particles positions (say) completely at *some* time (by  
irreversibilty, we might recover the initial and final state defining  
the whole unique history). I don't like this, because it is like QM +  
conspiratorial hidden positions (perhaps even depending on a  
particular base). I have not read Huw Price, and my reading of Cramer  
is very old.


Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Better Than the Chinese Room

2014-02-06 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Thursday, February 6, 2014 11:00:27 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 05 Feb 2014, at 19:49, Craig Weinberg wrote:



 On Wednesday, February 5, 2014 12:39:47 PM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 05 Feb 2014, at 14:28, Craig Weinberg wrote:

 snip

 Why would I share an elementary belief that I understand to be false?


 Nobody ask you this. On the contrary, the idea is to start from what we 
 can agree on.

 Given the complexity of the problem we talk about, we might even ask if we 
 agree on the logical rules.


 Yes, we should. 


 Ah? OK.


 I begin from the assumption that logical rules are abstracted from 
 comparisons across sensory experiences, and therefore have no independent 
 existence of their own or casual effect.


 That is not assumption. It might be part of a theory about the relations 
 between minds and logic.


Why isn't is an assumption? I'm assuming that the ontology of logic is such 
that it supervenes on sense experience (minds are not necessarily involved)/
 


 What I meant by agreeing on logical rules was agreeing that if we prove in 
 our theory some proposition A and if we prove in that theory some 
 proposition B, we allow saying that we have prove the new proposition 
 asserting that A and B.

 This is often written in some way, like   A, B / (A  B), or

 *  A B  *
 (A  B)


 An important rule is the modus ponens, for example; A, A - B /  B


Who are we? What is allow? What is prove? What is a proposition? 
I'm not trying to learn logic, I'm trying to show that logic cannot be used 
to take us all the way to understanding consciousness - and therefore logic 
cannot be used to understand why it cannot be used either.
 





  




  


 So my question is what does need to be explained in the axioms of 
 arithmetic that I have given? For most people a first order logic axiom like

 0 ≠ s(x)  (for all x) is simpler to understand that any statement 
 involving terms like sense or aesthetic.


 It's not simpler for me, or someone who doesn't know the language of 
 mathematical notation. 


 It is conceptually simpler. I could have written instead:

 0 is not equal to the successor of any number.


 What are not and equal and successor if not aesthetic qualities in 
 our imagination?



 They are simple 3p concept shared by all scientists.


simple 3p concepts shared by all scientists refers to consensual 
abstractions that are subject to revision.
 

 aesthetic qualities in our imagination refers to 1p.


Yes. Just like everything we that we can experience is the 1p of our skin, 
eyes, tongue, brain, molecules...
 


 it might be that they live through us in the form of aesthetic qualities 
 in our imagination. 


We know that they do. What we do not know is that they live anywhere else. 
Once you take the omnipotence and omniscience that you lend to numbers, and 
translate them into sensory-motive capabilities, then you have the much 
more reasonable, non-magical property of permeability of nested aesthetic 
acquaintance.
 

 That is even plausible with comp, and we can talk about that in some 
 possible thread. nevertheless, the meaning of aesthetic qualities in our 
 imagination is far more complex that the meaning of not, equal and 
 successor, when applied to natural numbers.


You're doing exactly what you accuse me of doing in judging a book by its 
local cover. Not, equal, and successor are simple to *you*, but what those 
concepts point to is a theoretical understanding which is not shared by 
infants. Infants would not understand the terms aesthetic... but they are 
experiencing them directly and understand that they are.
 






   


 Or write a longer sentence. It is intuitively trivial with the intended 
 standard intuitive notion of numbers: 0, 1, 2, 3, ...


 Whatever you are thinking is intuitively trivial is probably exactly where 
 I am saying that everything meaningful to consciousness must be.


 You talk again like the universal soul (S4Grz). Yes, from its point of 
 view, consciousness is trivial. Indeed. But that's a fact of reality, not 
 a theory capable of explaining that fact.


Not sure what you mean. I'm not saying that consciousness is trivial, I am 
saying that the aspects which I am saying are critical are those which you 
view as trivial. The fact of reality is where we should start all 
explanation from.
 


 If only I could find a way to motivate you to do the hard work.


What if understanding consciousness requires easy play instead?...or even 
absurd inevitable idling?






  




 I have to figure out what is meant by s(x), which distracts me from the 
 question of whether s(x) is actually fictional and derived from a whole 
 history of philosophical formulation. 


 You confuse the intended notion with the relation between the humans and 
 that notion. We can always come back on this, but you should appeal to such 
 side notion only when you think that it invalidate the reasoning. If not 
 you do what we call in french un 

Re: Block Universes

2014-02-06 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Jesse,

Frankly the utility of this approach seems opaque to me. I don't see how it 
differs from just being able to calculate the actual clock time differences 
the twins will have when they meet in 'a same present moment'. Because you 
say we already have to previously define what the same present moment they 
meet in is (means) and do that independently of this coordinate time 
calculation. You first must define, rather than calculate, what a same 
point in spacetime means by the reflected light method which is fine for 
establishing two twins are at the same point in spacetime WHEN they are at 
the same place in space but not otherwise.

You say that (using coordinate time calculations) For the twins, if you 
know the coordinates they departed Earth and their coordinate speeds when 
they departed, and you know the coordinates of any subsequent accelerations 
(or forces causing those accelerations), you can predict the different 
coordinates where they will reunite, and what proper time their clocks will 
show then.

But that's exactly what the standard equations of relativity give you isn't 
it? Assuming that by the proper time their clocks will show then (when 
they meet) is just the t values their clocks read. So I fail to see what 
we get out of this approach that standard relativity calculations don't 
give us. Don't they give us the exact same results of two different times 
in a same point in spacetime that we've already defined independently of 
the calculations?

If so I repeat my assertion that there is no calculation from coordinate 
time, or relativity in any form, that gives the twins having the exact same 
coordinate time reading on some cryptic clock that proves they are the same 
time as well as the same place when they meet. 

So again I repeat my assertion that the present moment is locally DEFINABLE 
(via reflected light) but NOT CALCULABLE by a coordinate time or any other 
approach.

Therefore the present moment is a completely independent kind of time since 
it is not a calculable result of relativity.

That's what I've always said, but I thought you were telling me that same 
points in spacetime were CALCULABLE with coordinate time, that there was 
some mysterious coordinate time calculation that made the twins' clocks 
come out the same t readings when they met proving that the meeting was at 
the same point in spacetime. 

Edgar


On Wednesday, February 5, 2014 7:29:22 PM UTC-5, jessem wrote:


 On Wed, Feb 5, 2014 at 6:27 PM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.netjavascript:
  wrote:

 Jesse,

 Again, if I understand you, this is just a way to define 'same points in 
 spacetime'. 


 No, it's a way to physically define coordinate position and coordinate 
 time in terms of actual physical clocks and rulers. The definition 
 presupposes that you *already* have an operational definition of when 
 events happen at the same point in spacetime, like the operational 
 description I described earlier that you seemed to be happy to accept--I 
 said in 
 https://groups.google.com/d/msg/everything-list/jFX-wTm_E_Q/PBeMO1PpJmsJthat 
 the same point in spacetime could be defined operationally in terms 
 of them being able to send light to the other one and get the reflected 
 light back in a negligible amount of their own clock time, with the light 
 coming back showing the clock time of the other one, and you replied in 
 https://groups.google.com/d/msg/everything-list/jFX-wTm_E_Q/DarNEwAiOp0Jthat 
 Re your last paragraph, then we DO agree (and your note that that is 
 measurable and confirmable by the zero light distance between them is a 
 good one)

 My explanation of the physical meaning of coordinate systems said, for 
 example, that if you say the event of twin A turning 30 happened at 
 x=10,y=15,z=5,t=50, what that means is that if you consider the physical 
 clock in the lattice at ruler-markings x=10,y=15,z=5, and we call this 
 clock C, then the event of A turning 30 happens AT THE SAME POINT IN 
 SPACETIME as the event of clock c reading a time of 50. Obviously this 
 explanation is meaningless if you don't already have a way of deciding if 
 two events happened at the same point in spacetime! But if you accept the 
 operational definition above, then this tells you what it means physically 
 to say that the event of A turning 30 happened at time-coordinate t=50 in 
 some frame.


  

 Again there is no calculation that tells us the twins will meet at a new 
 same point in spacetime from the original same point in spacetime.



 Did you want such a calculation? You asked 'what is that 'WHEN'? It is not 
 A's clock time and it is not B's clock time', which seemed to be a question 
 about the physical meaning of coordinate time.

 The usefulness of defining inertial coordinate systems of the type I 
 described is that there is a set of known equations that make correct 
 predictions in *all* such inertial coordinate systems. For example, they 
 allow you to predict that if a clock is 

Re: UDA and AUDA are the same thesis?

2014-02-06 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 05 Feb 2014, at 22:24, Russell Standish wrote:


On Wed, Feb 05, 2014 at 02:57:15PM +0100, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 05 Feb 2014, at 02:37, Russell Standish wrote:



I understand that BpDt gives one of von Neumann's quantum logics,  
but

it still seems an enormous jump from there to the FPI,


It will be the other way round. By UDA we have the FPI. To translate
that FPI we need to define probability or measure on consistent
extensions in arithmetic. By the FPI, to say that I will necessary
drink coffee after the WM-duplication, means that I will get coffee
in all consistent extensions (here W and M).



I don't see how a probability=1 concept helps with the FPI, which
requires probability  1 (p=0.5 at a minimum, for two equally probable
possibilities).


P(I get a coffee) = 1, in case you get a coffee in both W and M.
P(laws of physics) = 1 (the laws of physics are invariant for the comp  
continuations, as they are all defined globally on all computations).


It is an extreme ideal case, but it makes sense. P = 1 for the simple  
transportation, in the theoretical context, with all default  
assumptions.






The []p will ensure that p is true in all accessible worlds.

But unfortunately, []p is true for all p in the cul-de-sac world (a
future exercise for Liz!), which shows that provability is not a
probability, nor a measure of certainty. To get the certainty, we
have to explicitly assume at least one accessible world, and this is
done by imposing t, which imposes one accessible world, and
makes disappear the cul-de-sac possible situation.



I appreciate the no cul-de-sac result in the []pp hypostase, but
does that really mean much when Kripke frames are lost? I guess you
replace Kripke by Scott-Montegue, is that right?


Yes, but the notion is still defined in G, where we have the Kripke  
structure.
Then we loose the Kripke semantics, but this means only, here, that we  
get quasi-filters instead of filters. The semantics has to changed,  
but that is rather a good new, as we get some refinement on the notion  
of neighbors. Yes, for Z and X, and Z1 and X1, we can adopt the  
semantic of Scott-Montague, but we lost them on the [ ]* extensions.  
It is replaced by infinite sequences of such structures (which fit  
well with the probability on UD*).











or to call the
Deontic relation a Schroedinger equation, even a little abstract  
one.


The deontic relation is []p - p.

The little schroedinger equation will be

p - []p (together with []p - p),



Ah - it was 15 years ago when I read your (Lille) thesis
cover-to-cover. My confusion no doubt comes from you introducing both
concepts on the one page. I still slightly get the french words
encore and deja confused, because they were introduced on the same
page in my French text book.


It is the one bringing back the symmetry, and leading to the quantum
logic, and the proximity spaces (where the measure will live),
thanks to Goldblatt results.


I'd be interested in the proximity spaces. Is this a new result, or
just some speculation?


It is an old general result.  Take an ortho-space, for example the  
linear vectorial space, with a scalar product. In such space, you can  
look at the lattice of all linear subspaces. you can interpret  by  
intersection of subspaces (they are subspaces), and you can interpret  
the V, on two subspaces, by the least subspace containing the two  
subspaces.
Ah, and you can interpret the negation, of A, by the greater subspace  
orthogonal to A.
Then, if you interpret the atomic sentences, p, q, r by rays in that  
linear space, you get a (minimal) quantum logic.


The probability to go from p to q is given, by QM, by the scalar  
product of normalized vector (rays) and is the square of the cosine of  
the angle between the two rays. OK?


Let us a put a Kripke structure where world are quantum states, and  
thus subspaces. we say that p is accessible from g if the scalar  
product is not 0 (= if they are not orthogonal). That can be  
generalized on the subspaces.
That define a quantum proximity relation (not being orthogonal). It  
is reflexive and symmetrical.


But in comp we go in the other way: we get the ortho-structure, by the  
semantics of p-[]p + []p - p, and we define the proximity relation  
by the non-orthogonality.


This is known (by quantum logicians). For example the logic B (p- 
[]p + []p - p) is used to define a proximity relation on vague  
predicate in a study on vagueness by Williamson(*). Then Goldblatt  
use it also.


The reverse is exploited too.

Start from a Kripke multiverse M1, obeying p-[]p and []p - p  
(making the multiverse accessibility relation R1 symmetrical and  
reflexive, which I am explaining to Liz)


Then build a multiverse M2, with the same worlds than M1, but with the  
*complementary* accessibility relation R2. That means:


(alpha R1 beta) in M1 if and only if ~(alpha R2 beta) in M2.

The reflexive relation get irreflexive, and the symmetries all  
vanishes. 

Re: Unput and Onput

2014-02-06 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 05 Feb 2014, at 23:36, meekerdb wrote:


On 2/5/2014 2:10 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 04 Feb 2014, at 18:32, meekerdb wrote:

...
I have criticized it for it's seeming lack of predictive power - a  
problem with all theories of everythingism so far, and also string  
theory.


That is a technical issue only. As comp has to predict or re- 
predict all of physics, it is hardly not predictive. In particular,  
comp + Theaetetus already provide the logic of the observable, and  
up to now, it fits with the facts.


Well it's no good saying it *must be* predictive - if it's true.



That is the non trivial consequence comp. It is the sense of deriving  
physics from arithmetic.
All rules of prediction about the observable reality *have to* be  
theorems in arithmetic, concerning bets by universal machines.





One can say that about many theories - including string theory.


OK. But string theory like QM have been build for doing that. Comp is  
just the idea that the brain is a machine, and the consequence is that  
the laws of physics are given by the relative measure on universal  
machine/numbers states.


With comp, physics = the laws of the universal machine observable,  
with observable defined by an indexical (like []p p, or the others, p  
sigma_1 proposition).


Bruno





Brent

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Re: Block Universes

2014-02-06 Thread Jesse Mazer
On Thu, Feb 6, 2014 at 12:03 PM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 Jesse,

 Frankly the utility of this approach seems opaque to me. I don't see how
 it differs from just being able to calculate the actual clock time
 differences the twins will have when they meet in 'a same present moment'.
 Because you say we already have to previously define what the same present
 moment they meet in is (means) and do that independently of this coordinate
 time calculation. You first must define, rather than calculate, what a same
 point in spacetime means by the reflected light method which is fine for
 establishing two twins are at the same point in spacetime WHEN they are at
 the same place in space but not otherwise.

 You say that (using coordinate time calculations) For the twins, if you
 know the coordinates they departed Earth and their coordinate speeds when
 they departed, and you know the coordinates of any subsequent accelerations
 (or forces causing those accelerations), you can predict the different
 coordinates where they will reunite, and what proper time their clocks will
 show then.

 But that's exactly what the standard equations of relativity give you
 isn't it? Assuming that by the proper time their clocks will show then
 (when they meet) is just the t values their clocks read. So I fail to see
 what we get out of this approach that standard relativity calculations
 don't give us.



What do you mean by standard relativity calculations? The standard
calculations *are* done using some coordinate system, I don't know of any
way to make predictions about future behavior given some initial conditions
without making use of a coordinate system. All the equations of relativity
you'll find in an introductory textbook, like the time dilation equation,
will only apply in inertial coordinate systems for example (though more
advanced textbooks will provide different equations that can be used in
non-inertial coordinate systems). If you think there is some way in
relativity to make such predictions without using any coordinate systems at
all, please elaborate.



 Don't they give us the exact same results of two different times in a
 same point in spacetime that we've already defined independently of the
 calculations?

 If so I repeat my assertion that there is no calculation from coordinate
 time, or relativity in any form, that gives the twins having the exact same
 coordinate time reading on some cryptic clock that proves they are the same
 time as well as the same place when they meet.


And...what is this assertion based on, exactly? Even if you think there is
some other way of calculating what ages the twins will be when they meet
that doesn't make use of coordinate systems, this doesn't in any way imply
that the calculation involving coordinate systems gives the wrong answer,
or doesn't give an answer at all, to the question of what coordinate clock
will be at the same point in spacetime as the meeting of the twins, or what
the reading of that coordinate clock will be. Are you in fact arguing that
a calculation involving an inertial coordinate system will not give the
correct numerical answer to this question? If so, on what basis?





 So again I repeat my assertion that the present moment is locally
 DEFINABLE (via reflected light) but NOT CALCULABLE by a coordinate time or
 any other approach.


So it's the operational definition involving reflected light that you're
concerned with? But of course if you know the initial coordinate positions
and velocities of two observers approaching one another, and you know that
one observer is continually sending out light signals to the other and
measuring the reflections, then you can figure out the coordinate position
and time that each signal is sent out, the coordinate position and time it
gets reflected, and the coordinate position and time it returns to the
sender, and the proper (clock) time interval he will experience between
sending a given signal and receiving back the reflection of that signal.
There should be no problem with showing that this proper time interval
approaches 0 as you approach the coordinate position and time the two
observers meet. And it would work just the same if you replaced one of the
observers by any particular coordinate clock.



 That's what I've always said, but I thought you were telling me that same
 points in spacetime were CALCULABLE with coordinate time, that there was
 some mysterious coordinate time calculation that made the twins' clocks
 come out the same t readings when they met proving that the meeting was at
 the same point in spacetime.


By same t readings when they met do you mean that their own clocks
actually show the same proper time when they meet, or do you just mean that
their proper times at the point in spacetime when they meet are each
assigned the same t-coordinate in a coordinate system? I have obviously
been talking about the latter--I repeatedly used the example where, if twin
A is 30 and 

Re: Block Universes

2014-02-06 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 06 Feb 2014, at 00:17, Russell Standish wrote:


On Wed, Feb 05, 2014 at 02:43:32PM -0800, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

Russell,

That's a block time interpretation, not as you imply anything proven.
Certainly the equations themselves don't necessitate that...

If you accept that you are faced with the intractable problem of  
explaining

the source of that moving 1p viewpoint.



It doesn't seem particularly intractable to me, although it is related
to the hard question of how qualia comes about, so perhaps you are
alluding to that.


The moving 1p view point, or perhaps better the 1p moving-view  
point, is an affair of qualia and person, indeed.


It will correspond to S4Grz(1) in arithmetic, or the Soul of the  
World in Plotinus.


Bruno





And notice that strictly block time says NOTHING moves, not even a 1p
viewpoint,


Block time doesn't mention 1p at all. The subjective is not part of
its explanatory reach. Perhaps you are trying to attribute too much
explanatory power to the notion of block time? If you hold that block
time is all that there is, then you are basically eliminatavist in
your approach. Julian Barbour is in that camp, but I think that most
denizens of this list are not, except perhaps John Clark who dismisses
it as pee-pee.


that it's all a mysterious illusion of perspective that makes it
seem like something moves when nothing actually does, though of  
course no

one can explain why or how

Edgar





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Re: Real science versus interpretations of science

2014-02-06 Thread ghibbsa

On Thursday, February 6, 2014 4:31:18 PM UTC, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

 Ghibbsa,

 Boy O boy. Reread my post to you. It was completely complementary, only to 
 be met not with appreciation but with snide remarks and accusations.

 Anyway I officially withdraw it as it was obviously in error...

 Edgar

 
Well, yes. Of course it was in error because you massively overinflated 
what could reasonably be deduced from a single comment. That's not praise. 
Praise is measured. It's the measured part people feel praised about, 
because everyone knows measuring is hard, and suggests sincerity, whereas 
gushing is easy and normally has a self-serving motive. 
 
 
 
 
 
 

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Re: Block Universes

2014-02-06 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 06 Feb 2014, at 02:02, Russell Standish wrote:


On Thu, Feb 06, 2014 at 01:20:36PM +1300, LizR wrote:
On 6 February 2014 13:16, Russell Standish li...@hpcoders.com.au  
wrote:




That is exactly why I say a BU can never describe consciousness.



Is that specifically a BU, or any form of materialism?



Materialism only really entails supervenience of consciousness on the
physical world. I use the term physicalism to refer to the idea that
physical theories are sufficient to explain / describe consciousness
and eliminative materialism to describe the idea that conscious either
does not exist, or is mere epiphenomena, with no causal role at all.

Note that Bruno's MAT is actually physicalism, not materialism,


I think that with MGA, we can say that it is both. In fact I not sure  
that even weak materialism makes sense in a non physicalist ontology.  
But can come back on this later.


Bruno



something which has caused me great confusion in the past. The problem
was that the MGA is cloaked in the language of supervenience, which
belong to materialism in general, not just physicalism.

The BU is just a description, or a picture, of reality. It is not one
of the 'isms of the philosophy of the mind. But if you were to take
the BU as fundamental, then you would be adopting eliminative
materialism.

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Re: Block Universes

2014-02-06 Thread Jesse Mazer
On Thu, Feb 6, 2014 at 11:12 AM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 Jesse,

 No, I've mentioned that on a number of occasions. And yes, Omega should
 give us a p-time radius if we can actually figure out how to use it to
 calculate the radius of a simply hypersphere (if it is actually the
 curvature of a standard hypersphere which I'm beginning to doubt)


Omega is not a measure of curvature, it's a measure of density (see
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Friedmann_equations#Density_parameter ), and
it assumes the standard FRLW model where the density is perfectly uniform
at each moment of coordinate time. But in the FRLW model of a closed
universe, I believe the radius of the hypersphere as a function of
coordinate time can be calculated from Omega as a function of coordinate
time.



 But next you are putting words in my mouth. I do NOT say that determining
 which events are simultaneous in p-time is fundamentally impossible for any
 being within the universe. That's a basic misunderstanding of my model.

 I say quite the opposite, that there is a common universal present moment
 of p-time that all observers in the universe exist within,


I understand that you say this, but to say there is an objective truth
about p-time doesn't necessarily mean there is any empirical way to
determine which pairs of events actually happened at the same p-time.



 because the present moment of p-time is the only locus of actual reality,
 and this is individually confirmed by direct observation by all observers.


WHAT direct observations can determine whether two events at totally
different locations in space happened at the same moment of p-time or
different moments of p-time? If you think that this can be determined
observationally, please give a detailed procedure that could be applied to,
say, the question of whether two different bomb explosions at different
distances from a black hole happened at the same p-time or different
p-times.




 I also say that once that is established for each individual observer,
 then it is easy to demonstrate that that same present moment is common to
 all observers.



I'm not just asking for a metaphysical demonstration that there must be
such a common present moment, but a way to actually determine whether a
pair of events at different locations actually shared the same absolute
present moment at the time they happened.




 So there is no issue of determining which events are simultaneous in
 p-time because all events that are actually occurring occur only in the
 present moment of p-time.


I'm not asking about events that are actually occurring, I'm asking
*retrospectively*, if we have a record of two events that occurred in the
past, is there any way to determine whether those two events shared the
same p-time at the moment they happened.




 As for establishing the 'simultaneity' of past moments of p-time they
 don't really have a metric associated with them though you keep trying to
 tell me that coordinate time might provide one, but I don't see that yet.


A metric is a way of relating coordinate times to proper times for timelike
paths (and coordinate distances to proper lengths of spacelike paths), I
don't see what it has to do with establishing simultaneity of past moments
of p-time (I don't recall ever saying that coordinate time would provide a
definition of p-time, if you think I did you must have misunderstood me).
Forget technical ideas like metrics for the moment, please just tell me if
you'd agree that for any pair of events that happened in the past, it must
be either TRUE or FALSE that they shared the same p-time at the moment they
happened--that there has to be an objective truth about this, regardless of
whether we have any way to determine it empirically.

Jesse

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Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-02-06 Thread John Clark
On Wed, Feb 5, 2014 at 1:33 PM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 Forget stops.


OK, if they're still moving fast relative to each other then each will see
the others clock  running slow.

 Just assume A at the point just before he stops and is still
 decellerating at 1g TO stop. The situation is exactly the same except for a
 few nanoseconds.


No it is not. If A is decelerating then there has been a change in A's
acceleration, the direction has changed as much as it's possible for it to
change, by 180 degrees.  The situation is no longer symmetrical and so what
they see is not symmetrical, A sees B's clock running fast but B sees A's
clock running slow, they age at different rates too.  Of course if A is
only decelerating slightly then B's clock will only seem to be running
slightly fast, but then again if he's only decelerating slightly it will
take a long time (ship time) to come to a stop, so when he does finally
come to a stop A will find the discrepancy between his clock and his twin
brother's clock to be large.

 You've got the basic relativity wrong here.


Then Einstein got it wrong too.

  John K Clark

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Re: Eidetic memory and the comp hypothesis

2014-02-06 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 06 Feb 2014, at 02:32, Pierz wrote:

The phenomenon of eidetic (photographic) memory is well established  
as a reality. For an example of what it means, read the top answer  
to this quora.com question. People with this gift/disability  
remember every moment of their lives in perfect detail. To me this  
raises real questions about the comp hypothesis and the 'yes  
doctor'. Consider the 'RAM' required for this type of recall.  
Memories are 3d and 'retina' resolution. If we consider that an hour  
of Blu-ray footage consumes about 30Gb, then some rough calculations  
show that Blu-ray quality footage of an entire life of 60 years  
would consume around 17,000 terabytes of storage. But these memories  
include tactile, olfactory and cognitive channels as well as visual  
and auditory information, and of course the resolution of the visual  
system is far better than Blu-ray. I'd take a rough guess and say  
that full recording of a person's mental experience in all external  
and internal channels would have to require hundreds or even  
thousands of times the bandwidth of Blu-ray. But even at what I'd  
think would be an extremely conservative estimate of a hundred  
times, we're up near two million terabytes (two exabytes). What's  
more, there appears to be no strain, no sign of running out of space  
at all, as if capacity was simply not an issue. This type of example  
makes me really question whether digital prosthetics are a real  
possibility at all - it looks to me strongly suggestive of a totally  
different way of recording information, or even of the possibility  
that recording and storage are the wrong metaphor entirely.  
'Christian' in the above quora response says that he has little  
means of distinguishing a memory from a live experience, making for  
a very confusing mental life. This type of memory looks more like a  
kind of time travel than a recording. Perhaps this is still  
compatible with Bruno's version of comp - the universal subject  
inhabiting the pure space of Number - but it's more problematic for  
step one of the whole argument that leads to this vision, namely  
saying 'yes' to a digital brain.


Yes, it makes the neuro-mechanist assumption doubtful (perhaps), but  
that hypothesis is eliminated at step seven.


Now, I am not sure that there is no place in brain for such big  
memories, somehow compressed, inclduing the glials, and who knows RNA  
or something. Nor am I sure of your literal account of hypermnesia.  
Hypermnesics have quite impressive memory faculties, but those which  
memories are immediate, are so much handicapped that they are hard to  
test, some have buffer problem, etc. As Christian says; it leads to a  
very confusing mental life, making their accounts also confusing.


Bruno







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Re: Real science versus interpretations of science

2014-02-06 Thread ghibbsa

On Thursday, February 6, 2014 5:50:50 PM UTC, ghi...@gmail.com wrote:


 On Thursday, February 6, 2014 4:31:18 PM UTC, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

 Ghibbsa,

 Boy O boy. Reread my post to you. It was completely complementary, only 
 to be met not with appreciation but with snide remarks and accusations.

 Anyway I officially withdraw it as it was obviously in error...

 Edgar

  
 Well, yes. Of course it was in error because you massively overinflated 
 what could reasonably be deduced from a single comment. That's not praise. 
 Praise is measured. It's the measured part people feel praised about, 
 because everyone knows measuring is hard, and suggests sincerity, whereas 
 gushing is easy and normally has a self-serving motive.p

 
 p,s. like 3 days ago you massively went the other way and accused me of 
antipathy for trying to share about a way obviousness can bite back by 
sneaking too far into reasoning. 
 
p.p.s. don't worry I forgive you

  
  
  
  
  
  


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Re: Block Universes

2014-02-06 Thread Quentin Anciaux
So, what is it ? What is it supposed to solve in the first place ?


2014-02-06 Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net:

 Quentin,

 But it's NOT the case...

 Edgar



 On Thursday, February 6, 2014 10:52:58 AM UTC-5, Quentin Anciaux wrote:




 2014-02-06 Jesse Mazer laser...@gmail.com:



 On Thu, Feb 6, 2014 at 9:01 AM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.net wrote:

 But recall that p-time is not a directly measurable quantity so
 arbitrary precision does not apply. You still haven't grasped the concept
 correctly. P-time has no direct measure, because the present moment is that
 in which all measures, including those of clock time, are computed.


 I don't recall you ever spelling that out in conversation with me,
 thanks for clarifying. In the past people had asked you about how to
 determine p-time and you had said things like we should be able to compute
 p-time from Omega, the curvature of the universe (in the post at
 http://www.mail-archive.com/everything-list@
 googlegroups.com/msg47450.html ). So if you now say that determining
 which events are simultaneous in p-time is fundamentally impossible for any
 being within the universe, that answers what I was wondering about in
 question #1.


 If that's the case... what good is it to entertain such p-time... it's
 useless. Predict nothing, cannot be measured. What is p-time supposed to
 solve ?



 Jesse




 Nevertheless the fact of existence of all observers and thus of
 everything in the present moment is a direct empirical observation. Just
 like consciousness it is not subject to measure, but that doesn't mean it
 doesn't exist.

 Edgar

 On Thursday, February 6, 2014 12:47:05 AM UTC-5, jessem wrote:



 On Wed, Feb 5, 2014 at 7:38 PM, meekerdb meek...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 2/5/2014 9:31 AM, Jesse Mazer wrote:

 --question 1 dealt with the question of how YOU would define p-time
 simultaneity in a cosmological model where there's no way to slice the 4D
 spacetime into a series of 3D surfaces such that the density of matter is
 perfectly uniform on each slice (and that uniform can be characterized by
 the parameter Omega), unlike in the simple FLRW model where matter is
 assumed to be distributed in this perfectly uniform way.


 I don't see that perfect uniformity is necessary.  We have calculated
 our epoch relative to the CMB as 13.8By.  I assume any other scientific
 species in the universe could do the same and so say whether they were 
 'at
 the same time' as measured by expansion of the cosmos.  I don't see how 
 the
 existence of galaxies and galaxy clusters precludes this kind of
 measurement.



 Using the CMB may give an approximate answer, but would you argue it
 could distinguish between different simultaneity definitions that agree
 approximately when averaged over large scales, but disagree somewhat about
 the details of simultaneity in highly curved regions? For example, could
 the CMB be used to define a unique definition of simultaneity in the
 neighborhood of a black hole (where coordinate systems like Schwarzschild
 coordinates and Eddington-Finkelstein coordinates and Kruskal-Szekeres
 coordinates give very different definitions of simultaneity)? Edgar isn't
 just claiming some approximate pragmatic truth about simultaneity, he's
 claiming an absolute and exact truth about simultaneity in all
 circumstances, I was asking if he thinks this truth can be empirically
 determined to arbitrary precision even in principle, and if so what
 empirical observations would be used.

 Jesse




 Brent

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Re: Block Universes

2014-02-06 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Quentin,

Please refer to my extensive posts to Jesse for that...

Edgar

On Thursday, February 6, 2014 1:21:13 PM UTC-5, Quentin Anciaux wrote:

 So, what is it ? What is it supposed to solve in the first place ?


 2014-02-06 Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.net javascript::

 Quentin,

 But it's NOT the case...

 Edgar



 On Thursday, February 6, 2014 10:52:58 AM UTC-5, Quentin Anciaux wrote:




 2014-02-06 Jesse Mazer laser...@gmail.com:



 On Thu, Feb 6, 2014 at 9:01 AM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.net wrote:

 But recall that p-time is not a directly measurable quantity so 
 arbitrary precision does not apply. You still haven't grasped the 
 concept 
 correctly. P-time has no direct measure, because the present moment is 
 that 
 in which all measures, including those of clock time, are computed. 


 I don't recall you ever spelling that out in conversation with me, 
 thanks for clarifying. In the past people had asked you about how to 
 determine p-time and you had said things like we should be able to 
 compute 
 p-time from Omega, the curvature of the universe (in the post at 
 http://www.mail-archive.com/everything-list@
 googlegroups.com/msg47450.html ). So if you now say that determining 
 which events are simultaneous in p-time is fundamentally impossible for 
 any 
 being within the universe, that answers what I was wondering about in 
 question #1.


 If that's the case... what good is it to entertain such p-time... it's 
 useless. Predict nothing, cannot be measured. What is p-time supposed to 
 solve ?
  

  
 Jesse

  


 Nevertheless the fact of existence of all observers and thus of 
 everything in the present moment is a direct empirical observation. Just 
 like consciousness it is not subject to measure, but that doesn't mean it 
 doesn't exist.

 Edgar

 On Thursday, February 6, 2014 12:47:05 AM UTC-5, jessem wrote:

  

 On Wed, Feb 5, 2014 at 7:38 PM, meekerdb meek...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 2/5/2014 9:31 AM, Jesse Mazer wrote:
  
 --question 1 dealt with the question of how YOU would define p-time 
 simultaneity in a cosmological model where there's no way to slice the 
 4D 
 spacetime into a series of 3D surfaces such that the density of matter 
 is 
 perfectly uniform on each slice (and that uniform can be characterized 
 by 
 the parameter Omega), unlike in the simple FLRW model where matter is 
 assumed to be distributed in this perfectly uniform way.


 I don't see that perfect uniformity is necessary.  We have 
 calculated our epoch relative to the CMB as 13.8By.  I assume any other 
 scientific species in the universe could do the same and so say whether 
 they were 'at the same time' as measured by expansion of the cosmos.  I 
 don't see how the existence of galaxies and galaxy clusters precludes 
 this 
 kind of measurement.



 Using the CMB may give an approximate answer, but would you argue it 
 could distinguish between different simultaneity definitions that agree 
 approximately when averaged over large scales, but disagree somewhat 
 about 
 the details of simultaneity in highly curved regions? For example, could 
 the CMB be used to define a unique definition of simultaneity in the 
 neighborhood of a black hole (where coordinate systems like 
 Schwarzschild 
 coordinates and Eddington-Finkelstein coordinates and Kruskal-Szekeres 
 coordinates give very different definitions of simultaneity)? Edgar 
 isn't 
 just claiming some approximate pragmatic truth about simultaneity, he's 
 claiming an absolute and exact truth about simultaneity in all 
 circumstances, I was asking if he thinks this truth can be empirically 
 determined to arbitrary precision even in principle, and if so what 
 empirical observations would be used. 

 Jesse

  

  
 Brent
  
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Re: Block Universes

2014-02-06 Thread Quentin Anciaux
I've read all of them, there is nothing about what it is supposed to
solve...

Please state it here and now... do not refer to inexistant post.


2014-02-06 Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net:

 Quentin,

 Please refer to my extensive posts to Jesse for that...

 Edgar


 On Thursday, February 6, 2014 1:21:13 PM UTC-5, Quentin Anciaux wrote:

 So, what is it ? What is it supposed to solve in the first place ?


 2014-02-06 Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.net:

 Quentin,

 But it's NOT the case...

 Edgar



 On Thursday, February 6, 2014 10:52:58 AM UTC-5, Quentin Anciaux wrote:




 2014-02-06 Jesse Mazer laser...@gmail.com:



 On Thu, Feb 6, 2014 at 9:01 AM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.net wrote:

 But recall that p-time is not a directly measurable quantity so
 arbitrary precision does not apply. You still haven't grasped the 
 concept
 correctly. P-time has no direct measure, because the present moment is 
 that
 in which all measures, including those of clock time, are computed.


 I don't recall you ever spelling that out in conversation with me,
 thanks for clarifying. In the past people had asked you about how to
 determine p-time and you had said things like we should be able to 
 compute
 p-time from Omega, the curvature of the universe (in the post at
 http://www.mail-archive.com/everything-list@googlegroups.
 com/msg47450.html ). So if you now say that determining which events
 are simultaneous in p-time is fundamentally impossible for any being 
 within
 the universe, that answers what I was wondering about in question #1.


 If that's the case... what good is it to entertain such p-time...
 it's useless. Predict nothing, cannot be measured. What is p-time supposed
 to solve ?



 Jesse




 Nevertheless the fact of existence of all observers and thus of
 everything in the present moment is a direct empirical observation. Just
 like consciousness it is not subject to measure, but that doesn't mean it
 doesn't exist.

 Edgar

 On Thursday, February 6, 2014 12:47:05 AM UTC-5, jessem wrote:



 On Wed, Feb 5, 2014 at 7:38 PM, meekerdb meek...@verizon.netwrote:

  On 2/5/2014 9:31 AM, Jesse Mazer wrote:

 --question 1 dealt with the question of how YOU would define p-time
 simultaneity in a cosmological model where there's no way to slice the 
 4D
 spacetime into a series of 3D surfaces such that the density of matter 
 is
 perfectly uniform on each slice (and that uniform can be characterized 
 by
 the parameter Omega), unlike in the simple FLRW model where matter is
 assumed to be distributed in this perfectly uniform way.


 I don't see that perfect uniformity is necessary.  We have
 calculated our epoch relative to the CMB as 13.8By.  I assume any other
 scientific species in the universe could do the same and so say whether
 they were 'at the same time' as measured by expansion of the cosmos.  I
 don't see how the existence of galaxies and galaxy clusters precludes 
 this
 kind of measurement.



 Using the CMB may give an approximate answer, but would you argue it
 could distinguish between different simultaneity definitions that agree
 approximately when averaged over large scales, but disagree somewhat 
 about
 the details of simultaneity in highly curved regions? For example, could
 the CMB be used to define a unique definition of simultaneity in the
 neighborhood of a black hole (where coordinate systems like 
 Schwarzschild
 coordinates and Eddington-Finkelstein coordinates and Kruskal-Szekeres
 coordinates give very different definitions of simultaneity)? Edgar 
 isn't
 just claiming some approximate pragmatic truth about simultaneity, he's
 claiming an absolute and exact truth about simultaneity in all
 circumstances, I was asking if he thinks this truth can be empirically
 determined to arbitrary precision even in principle, and if so what
 empirical observations would be used.

 Jesse




 Brent

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Re: Unput and Onput

2014-02-06 Thread meekerdb

On 2/6/2014 8:22 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
Yes. But it is not a back and forth. It just happen that when machine looks inward, and 
stay honest with herself, she cannot avoid some private transcendence. It is a theorem 
of arithmetic, with standard definition for transcendence.


I think the standard definition is beyond normal experience, but I think you mean true 
but unprovable.  But even if you take transcendent to mean ineffable I don't see how 
arithmetic is going to pick out the qualia of experience as ineffable.  There are 
infinitely many true but unprovable propositions.  Why are the qualia we experience the 
ones that they are and not some others?


Brent

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Re: Block Universes

2014-02-06 Thread Jesse Mazer
On Thu, Feb 6, 2014 at 1:25 PM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 Quentin,

 Please refer to my extensive posts to Jesse for that...

 Edgar



I would guess that, like me, Quentin is asking how you would retroactively
determine whether two events in the past happened at the same p-time (and
because of the finite speed of light, whenever we learn of an event at a
location different from our own, it is always an event in the past), and
thus wouldn't be satisfied by the answer you gave me that there is no
issue of determining which events are simultaneous in p-time because all
events that are actually occurring occur only in the present moment of
p-time, since this answer is of no help in giving a practical answer to
that question for any specific pair of known events which happened at
different locations.

Jesse

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Re: Unput and Onput

2014-02-06 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Thursday, February 6, 2014 11:22:24 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 05 Feb 2014, at 20:29, Craig Weinberg wrote:



 On Wednesday, February 5, 2014 12:53:56 PM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 05 Feb 2014, at 13:49, Craig Weinberg wrote:



 On Wednesday, February 5, 2014 4:37:39 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 04 Feb 2014, at 18:07, Craig Weinberg wrote:

 Numbers can be derived from sensible physics 


 That is a claim often done, but nobody has ever succeed without assuming 
 Turing universality (and thus the numbers) in their description of physics.


 Turing universality can just be a property of physics, like density or 
 mass. 


 That is close to just nonsense (but I agree that some notorious 
 physicists are attracted to this, but they don't convince me). 


 Can you explain why?


 Because Turing universality is a mathematical notion. 

 It has nothing to do with physics. But physics can implement them, and 
 that notion is not that obvious. 


How do you know it has nothing to do with physics? Certainly it seems more 
plausible to me that Turing universality supervenes on a common language of 
physical unity and unit-plurality than it does that the flavor of a 
tangerine supervenes on Turing universality. 

 




  




 Just as Comp does a brute appropriation of qualia under 1p uncertainty, 


 No. That would be a confusion between []p and []p  p (or others).

 Only God can do that confusion.


 You seem to go back and forth between making qualia something transcendent 
 and private, to making it somehow inevitable mathematically.


 Yes. But it is not a back and forth. It just happen that when machine 
 looks inward, and stay honest with herself, she cannot avoid some private 
 transcendence. It is a theorem of arithmetic, with standard definition for 
 transcendence.


What's a standard definition for transcendence? How do you know that such a 
condition is not a 1 dimensional data transformation rather than an 
introspective aesthetic environment?
 



 If we ask ourselves, 'Does being a good mathematician require you to be a 
 good artist or musician?', the answer I think is no.


 I am not sure. But good mathematician is vague. Good artist also.


Just in simple, straightforward terms - does being able to multiply 
fractions require that you can paint a realistic face or does it seem to be 
a fundamentally different talent?




 If we ask 'Does being a good artist or musician require us to be a good 
 mathematician?' the answer is also no. Why is the relation between math, 
 physics, and science so obvious, 


 Such relation are not obvious. That is why we discuss them. Indeed comp 
 changes them radically.


Comp would change them if it were correct. I am using the fact of their 
colloquial relation as support for Comp being misguided.
 




 but the relation between any of those and the arts is not so obvious?



 because to add numbers you need few bytes. To pain Mona Lisa, you nee much 
 more bytes, and richer 1p experiences.


It doesn't follow though that more math would equal 'unlike math' - at 
least not without a theory of why math would become unlike itself and what 
that would mean.
 



  




 physics can do a brute appropriation of arithmetic under material 
 topology.


 Some material disposition can be shown to be Turing universal. But this 
 is proved in showing how such system can implement a universal machine 
 (quantum or not quantum one).


 Don't you just have to go to a level of description where the material 
 appears granular. I don't really get the argument that all matter is 
 computable but not all computation can be materialized.


 Comp implies that matter is not computable. materialization is an 
 emergent phenomenon on coherence conditions on infinite sum of computations.


Why wouldn't you still be able to materialize any infinite sum of 
computations?
 





  




 It would explain why Turing universality does not apply to gases 


 It applies to gases. technically no usable, as it is hard to put all the 
 gaz molecules


 Not talking about gas molecules, I'm talking about a volume of ideal gas.
  

 at the right position at the right time, but in principle, gases, in some 
 volume, are Turing universal system. 


 You would need to control that volume with non-gaseous containers and 
 valves. Gas is still not Turing universal as an uncontained ideal gas. 
 Computation requires formal, object-like units...because arithmetic is not 
 really universal, it is only low level.



 and empty space. 


 Hmm... Quantum vacuum is Turing universal. I think.


 I'm talking about an ideal vacuum though, not the vacuum that we imagine 
 is full of particle-waves or probability juice. If I'm right about the 
 sense primitive, energy exists only within matter, and not in space.
  


 For classical physics, you need at least three bodies.



 Computers require object-like properties to control and measure digitally.


 Yes. 





  

 You often say, we 

Re: Modal Logic (Part 3: summary + 1 exercise)

2014-02-06 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 06 Feb 2014, at 07:39, LizR wrote:


On 6 February 2014 08:25, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


Which among the next symbolic expressions is the one being a well  
formed formula:


((p - q) - ((p (p V r)) - q))

))(p-)##à89- a - q)

OK?

I sure hope so.


Well, I will pray a little bit.





(to be sure the irst one might contain a typo, but I assure you  
there are no typo in the second one (and there is no cat walking on  
the keyboard).


***

Then a set of worlds get alive when each proposition (p, q, r), in  
each world get some truth value, t, or f. I will say that the  
mutiverse is illuminated.


And we can decide to put f and t is the propositional symbol for the  
boolean constant true and false.

(meaning that p - f is a proposition, or well formed formula).

In modal logic it is often simpler to use only the connector -  
and that if possible if you have the constant f.


For example you can define ~p as an abbreviation for (p - f), as  
you should see by doing a truth table. OK?


p - f is (~p V f), for which the truth table is indeed the same as ~p


OK.






(Can you define , V, with - and f in the same way? This is  
not an exercise, just a question!).


I don't think I can define those *literally* with p, - and f if  
that's what you mean.


That is what I mean, indeed.



But that doesn't make sense, because  requires two arguments, so it  
would have to be something like ... well, p - q is (~p V q) and  
it's also ~(p  ~q), which contain V and  ... I'm not sure I know  
what you mean.


Like for ~, to define  and V to a machine which knows only - 
  and f.  You can use the ~, as you have alredy see that you  
can define it with - and f.


I reason aloud. Please tell me if you understand.

First we know that p - q is just ~p V q, OK?

So the V looks already close to -. Except that instead of ~p V  
q (which is p - q) we want p V q.


May be we can substitute just p by ~p: and p V q might be then ~p - q,

Well, you can do the truth table of ~p - q, and see that it is the  
same as p V q.


To finish it of course, we can eliminate the ~, and we have that p V  
q is entirely defined by (p - f) - q.


OK?

And the :

Well, we already know a relationship between the  and the V, OK?  
The De Morgan relations.


So, applying the de Morgan relation,  p  q is the same as ~(~p V ~q),  
(the same logically, not pragmatically, of course).


That solves the problem.

But we can verify, perhaps simplify. We can eliminate the V by the  
definition above (A V B = ~A - B),
~(~p V ~q) becomes ~(~~p - ~q), that is ~(p - ~q). Or, to really  
settle the things, and define  from - and f:

p  q = ((p - (q - f)) - f).

OK?




Each world, once illuminated (that is once each proposition letter  
has a value f or t) inherits of the semantics of classical  
proposition logic.


This means that if p and q are true in some world alpha, then (p   
q) is true in that world alpha, etc.
in particular all tautologies, or propositional laws, is true in all  
illuminated multiverse, and this for all illuminations (that for all  
possible assignment of truth value to the world).


OK?

Question: If the multiverse is the set  {a, b}, how many illuminated  
multiverses can we get?


I suppose 4, since we have a world with 2 propositions, and each can  
be t or f?


Answer: there is three letters p, q, r, leading to eight valuations  
possible in a, and the same in b, making a total of 64 valuations,  
if I am not too much distracted. I go quick. This is just to test if  
you get the precise meanings.


Oh, OK. So a and b are worlds, not ... sorry. I see.


Good.


So that is 2^3 x 2^3 because a has p,q,r = 3 values, all t or f, as  
does b. OK now I see what you meant.


OK.




Of course with the infinite alphabet {p, q, r, p1, q1, r1, p2, ... }  
we already have a continuum of multiverses.


I can't quite see why it's a continuum. Each world has a countable  
infinity of letters, and the number of worlds is therefore 2 ^  
countable infinity! Is that a continuum?


Yes. We proved it, Liz.

Take a the infinite propositional symbol letters {p, q, r, p1, q1, r1,  
p2, ... } . They are well ordered.  So a sequence of 1 and 0 (other  
common name for t and f) can be interpreted as being a valuation. The  
valuation are the infinite sequences of 1 and 0. Or the function from  
N to {0, 1}.


If such a set of function was in bijection with N, i - f_i, the  
function g defined by g(n) = f_n(n) + 1 would be a function f_i, let  
us sat f_k, and f_k, applied on k, would gives both f_k(k) + 1 and  
f_k(k), and be well defined, making 0 = 1.







My transfinite maths may not be quite up to that one.


The infinite sequence of 0, and 1, if you put 0. at the front, you get

0.1101111011010000...

for all sequences of 0 and 1, that is you get the real numbers,  
written in binary, belonging to the interval (0, 1].


That is the continuum. 2^aleph_0.






Well, that was Leibniz sort of multiverse, with 

Re: Modal Logic (Part 3: summary + 1 exercise)

2014-02-06 Thread meekerdb

On 2/6/2014 12:14 PM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
In Kripke semantic all statements are relativized to the world you are in. []A can be 
true in some world and false in another. The meaning of [] is restricted, for each 
world, to the world they can access (through the accessibility relation available in the 
Kripke multiverse).


[]A still keep a meaning, but only in each world. So everything is said when we define 
the new meaning of [] by the rule


[]A is true in alpha, by definition, means that A is true in all world beta *accessible* 
from alpha.


And

A is true in alpha iff there is a world beta; where A is true, accessible 
from alpha.


Suppose A is true in alpha, but alpha is not accessible from alpha and A is not true in 
any other world accessible from alpha.  Does it follow that A is not true in alpha?  I 
don't see the point allowing that worlds may not be accesible from themselves?  Does that 
have some application?


Brent

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Re: Block Universes

2014-02-06 Thread LizR
On 7 February 2014 05:36, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


 On 05 Feb 2014, at 20:30, LizR wrote:

 On 6 February 2014 00:07, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


 OK. But time symmetry still asks fro special boundary condition, and
 seems to me to still look like using ad hoc information to select one
 reality against others. I agree with Deutsch's idea that Cramer
 transactional theory is still a MWI, + initial conditions selecting a
 reality.


 Which special boundary conditions? The only ones in an EPR experiment are
 the emitter and measuring device settings.


 That will not be enough, I think. You need the state of the prepared
 particle (say), and the measuring device + the result you measure on the
 particle. Or worst, the end state of the physical universe. You can't
 select one reality among all, and keep the interference right for arbitrary
 measurement, without selecting the whole reversible unique history.


I think that's why we use photons for EPR. They haven't enough internal
state for those considerations to be relevant. For the experiment only a
few factors are important, and carefully controlled.




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Re: Unput and Onput

2014-02-06 Thread LizR
On 7 February 2014 05:22, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 On 05 Feb 2014, at 20:29, Craig Weinberg wrote:

 On Wednesday, February 5, 2014 12:53:56 PM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:

 On 05 Feb 2014, at 13:49, Craig Weinberg wrote:

 On Wednesday, February 5, 2014 4:37:39 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:

 On 04 Feb 2014, at 18:07, Craig Weinberg wrote:

 Numbers can be derived from sensible physics

 That is a claim often done, but nobody has ever succeed without assuming
 Turing universality (and thus the numbers) in their description of physics.
 Turing universality can just be a property of physics, like density or
 mass.

 That is close to just nonsense (but I agree that some notorious
 physicists are attracted to this, but they don't convince me).


 Can you explain why?

 Because Turing universality is a mathematical notion.

 It has nothing to do with physics.

 I must admit I was quite surprised by this. I thought you generally argue
that physics can be extracted from comp, and TU is part of comp (isn't it?)

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Re: Real science versus interpretations of science

2014-02-06 Thread Platonist Guitar Cowboy
On Thu, Feb 6, 2014 at 5:31 PM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 Ghibbsa,

 Boy O boy. Reread my post to you. It was completely complementary, only to
 be met not with appreciation but with snide remarks and accusations.

 Anyway I officially withdraw it as it was obviously in error...


Then the registrars, board of directors, volunteer representatives, unions,
bureaucrats, technicians, warriors, and brave souls maintaining the ring of
everything-listers, not including yours truly lazy in this regard, *officially
decree*, with dueness in forthright diligence, AND purposefully noting the
swearing  protocolization of plaintiff's withdrawal of an overly ardent
compliment to himself by himself, due to an error in the plaintiffs
overestimation of himself, projecting his own awesomeness onto critical
encouragement by the forgiving defendant in form of a normal post outside
of p-time, as everyone is prone to commit from time to time, is noted and
archived according to protocols of the appropriate paragraphs and sections.

Howeveriver, this official withdrawal marking a landmark turn of events on
this list, whencewithforthnight for now appeased, the angry souls of
plaintiff's retract-rebuttalized error of unity in
comradery-mass-dorkification of the rest of the members of this noble-bloat
house of postingoods, unsearchable by any known box or tab, logical and
otherwise, now cast into the iron lightning of Odin's dong song with a
single post into the eternity of P-time.

Hencewithtoforthcoming, all will change in the realized interpretations of
Science because of the gravy gravity of this officialized, sealed,
notarized, proof-read, nsa devoured, spamificationationalizeducation of the
rest of the dumb list for we all like the gravy bit, unless we are
greenitarian, which remains solemnly, in the light of day, a dark matter of
information-urination from black holes spun out of standards more than
blocks of verses singing in unison of angry hawks and birds.

All rejoice and thank the Edgar,
as well and more the forgiver,
foreverchangeternally p-time of the past, present, future and on the
left.

Seeriousee? Clarification between the real and interpretation has been
achieved in this thread. Thank you all. From the heart. Officially. PGC


 Edgar


 On Thursday, February 6, 2014 11:16:34 AM UTC-5, ghi...@gmail.com wrote:


 On Thursday, February 6, 2014 1:49:23 PM UTC, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

 Ghibbsa,

 Hmmm, guess I was a little over optimistic in my praise! I'll retract it
 if you like. Your previous post must have been a temporary aberration!
 :-)

 Best,
 Edgar



 what you were actually  doing was making an opportunity to complain and
 put down everyone else, with yourself firmly in the frame of how to do
 things right. Which first of all is the opposite of praising the other
 person, because it's at their expense. I mean, come on, that's an insult if
 anything.













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Re: Eidetic memory and the comp hypothesis

2014-02-06 Thread LizR
On 7 February 2014 02:01, Richard Ruquist yann...@gmail.com wrote:

 On Thu, Feb 6, 2014 at 2:36 AM, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 So he's saying the number of proteins you COULD make from around 60 amino
 acids exceeds the Lloyd limit - not that there in fact is a Lloyd limit's
 worth of information stored in a given protein, brain, organism or even
 biosphere.


 No. Read again


OK...


 It is of interest to determine just how complex a physical system has to
 be to encounter the Lloyd limit. For most purposes in physical science the
 limit is too weak to make a jot of difference. But in cases where the
 parameters of the system are combinatorically explosive, the limit can be
 significant. For example, proteins are made of strings of 20 different
 sorts of amino acids, and the combinatoric possibility space has more
 dimensions than the Lloyd limit of 10^120 when the number of amino acids
 is greater than about 60 (Davies, 2004).


That still seems to be saying what I just said. The dimensions in
possibility space is surely equivalent to the number of different proteins
you could make?

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Re: Eidetic memory and the comp hypothesis

2014-02-06 Thread LizR
On 7 February 2014 06:59, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 On 06 Feb 2014, at 02:32, Pierz wrote:

 The phenomenon of eidetic (photographic) memory is well established as a
 reality. For an example of what it means, read the top answer to this 
 quora.com
 questionhttp://www.quora.com/digest/track_click?hash=2e8ec7de05b636790212092c83f0936eaoid=pLlVYjWVKaaoty=2ty_data=4012999ty=1digest_id=241884556click_pos=1st=1391558946766537source=3stories=1_L4sR6imoEQB%7C1_aytbQbnb2zW%7C1_jA8otFvN9FH%7C1_4XH6bzBFPwr%7C1_4TMBUpDzRpy%7C1_8f6Kgdm4jXW%7C1_XDaAF5TDFVy%7C1_zsSejxTjfe6v=2aty=4.
 People with this gift/disability remember every moment of their lives in 
 *perfect
 *detail. To me this raises real questions about the comp hypothesis and
 the 'yes doctor'. Consider the 'RAM' required for this type of recall.
 Memories are 3d and 'retina' resolution. If we consider that an hour of
 Blu-ray footage consumes about 30Gb, then some rough calculations show that
 Blu-ray quality footage of an entire life of 60 years would consume around
 17,000 terabytes of storage. But these memories include tactile, olfactory
 and cognitive channels as well as visual and auditory information, and of
 course the resolution of the visual system is far better than Blu-ray. I'd
 take a rough guess and say that full recording of a person's mental
 experience in all external and internal channels would have to require
 hundreds or even thousands of times the bandwidth of Blu-ray. But even at
 what I'd think would be an extremely conservative estimate of a hundred
 times, we're up near two million terabytes (two exabytes). What's more,
 there appears to be no strain, no sign of running out of space at all, as
 if capacity was simply not an issue. This type of example makes me really
 question whether digital prosthetics are a real possibility at all - it
 looks to me strongly suggestive of a totally different way of recording
 information, or even of the possibility that recording and storage are the
 wrong metaphor entirely. 'Christian' in the above quora response says that
 he has little means of distinguishing a memory from a live experience,
 making for a very confusing mental life. This type of memory looks more
 like a kind of time travel than a recording. Perhaps this is still
 compatible with Bruno's version of comp - the universal subject inhabiting
 the pure space of Number - but it's more problematic for step one of the
 whole argument that leads to this vision, namely saying 'yes' to a digital
 brain.

 Yes, it makes the neuro-mechanist assumption doubtful (perhaps), but that
 hypothesis is eliminated at step seven.

 Now, I am not sure that there is no place in brain for such big memories,
 somehow compressed, inclduing the glials, and who knows RNA or something.
 Nor am I sure of your literal account of hypermnesia. Hypermnesics have
 quite impressive memory faculties, but those which memories are immediate,
 are so much handicapped that they are hard to test, some have buffer
 problem, etc. As Christian says; it leads to a very confusing mental life,
 making their accounts also confusing.

 Roughly speaking, you seem to be saying that having an eidetic memory
leaves little space for anything else. So could that be used to estimate
the total capacity of the brain?

I'm guessing memories aren't stored in HD surroundsound, despite earlier
comments. The input stream is a lot of data, but surely memories are highly
compressed, even photographic ones? (Maybe not using MPEG...)

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Re: Block Universes

2014-02-06 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Quentin,

For starters, as I've said on numerous occasions,  it solves the question 
of how observers can have different relativistic clock times in the same 
present moment.

Edgar



On Thursday, February 6, 2014 1:33:02 PM UTC-5, Quentin Anciaux wrote:

 I've read all of them, there is nothing about what it is supposed to 
 solve...

 Please state it here and now... do not refer to inexistant post.


 2014-02-06 Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.net javascript::

 Quentin,

 Please refer to my extensive posts to Jesse for that...

 Edgar


 On Thursday, February 6, 2014 1:21:13 PM UTC-5, Quentin Anciaux wrote:

 So, what is it ? What is it supposed to solve in the first place ?
  

 2014-02-06 Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.net:

 Quentin,

 But it's NOT the case...

 Edgar



 On Thursday, February 6, 2014 10:52:58 AM UTC-5, Quentin Anciaux wrote:




 2014-02-06 Jesse Mazer laser...@gmail.com:



 On Thu, Feb 6, 2014 at 9:01 AM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.netwrote:

 But recall that p-time is not a directly measurable quantity so 
 arbitrary precision does not apply. You still haven't grasped the 
 concept 
 correctly. P-time has no direct measure, because the present moment is 
 that 
 in which all measures, including those of clock time, are computed. 


 I don't recall you ever spelling that out in conversation with me, 
 thanks for clarifying. In the past people had asked you about how to 
 determine p-time and you had said things like we should be able to 
 compute 
 p-time from Omega, the curvature of the universe (in the post at 
 http://www.mail-archive.com/everything-list@googlegroups.
 com/msg47450.html ). So if you now say that determining which events 
 are simultaneous in p-time is fundamentally impossible for any being 
 within 
 the universe, that answers what I was wondering about in question #1.


 If that's the case... what good is it to entertain such p-time... 
 it's useless. Predict nothing, cannot be measured. What is p-time 
 supposed 
 to solve ?
  

  
 Jesse

  


 Nevertheless the fact of existence of all observers and thus of 
 everything in the present moment is a direct empirical observation. 
 Just 
 like consciousness it is not subject to measure, but that doesn't mean 
 it 
 doesn't exist.

 Edgar

 On Thursday, February 6, 2014 12:47:05 AM UTC-5, jessem wrote:

  

 On Wed, Feb 5, 2014 at 7:38 PM, meekerdb meek...@verizon.netwrote:

  On 2/5/2014 9:31 AM, Jesse Mazer wrote:
  
 --question 1 dealt with the question of how YOU would define 
 p-time simultaneity in a cosmological model where there's no way to 
 slice 
 the 4D spacetime into a series of 3D surfaces such that the density 
 of 
 matter is perfectly uniform on each slice (and that uniform can be 
 characterized by the parameter Omega), unlike in the simple FLRW 
 model 
 where matter is assumed to be distributed in this perfectly uniform 
 way.


 I don't see that perfect uniformity is necessary.  We have 
 calculated our epoch relative to the CMB as 13.8By.  I assume any 
 other 
 scientific species in the universe could do the same and so say 
 whether 
 they were 'at the same time' as measured by expansion of the cosmos.  
 I 
 don't see how the existence of galaxies and galaxy clusters precludes 
 this 
 kind of measurement.



 Using the CMB may give an approximate answer, but would you argue 
 it could distinguish between different simultaneity definitions that 
 agree 
 approximately when averaged over large scales, but disagree somewhat 
 about 
 the details of simultaneity in highly curved regions? For example, 
 could 
 the CMB be used to define a unique definition of simultaneity in the 
 neighborhood of a black hole (where coordinate systems like 
 Schwarzschild 
 coordinates and Eddington-Finkelstein coordinates and Kruskal-Szekeres 
 coordinates give very different definitions of simultaneity)? Edgar 
 isn't 
 just claiming some approximate pragmatic truth about simultaneity, 
 he's 
 claiming an absolute and exact truth about simultaneity in all 
 circumstances, I was asking if he thinks this truth can be empirically 
 determined to arbitrary precision even in principle, and if so what 
 empirical observations would be used. 

 Jesse

  

  
 Brent
  
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Re: Indian physicist resolved Black Hole paradox much before Hawking

2014-02-06 Thread LizR
Hawking gets the attention because he has ALS. It's not a tradeoff many
would want to make.

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Re: Block Universes

2014-02-06 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Jesse,

Once again, for the nth time, you are making statements about CLOCK time 
simultaneity with which I agree. That has nothing to do with the same 
present moment of p-time.

Edgar



On Thursday, February 6, 2014 12:15:16 PM UTC-5, jessem wrote:



 On Thu, Feb 6, 2014 at 9:38 AM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.netjavascript:
  wrote:

 Jesse,

 OK, let's see if I understand your coordinate spacetime model the same way 
 you do.

 Start with an empty space with no matter or energy. 

 [But this is impossible in my theory since the presence of matter/energy 
 is what creates space in my model so make that a space filled with a thin 
 homogeneous distribution of matter. This is irrelevant to the discussion, 
 just a note.]

 This space will be flat, locally at least. [On cosmological scales it will 
 be curved but we can ignore that for now]

 Now assume this is a 2D space to make things simpler.

 Now drop an arbitrary orthogonal coordinate grid on this space.

 Next place a clock and a light source at each grid intersection. The clock 
 and light source will be synchronized and the light source will emit a 
 pulse of light at every second the clock ticks.

 Note that, in this flat homogeneous space with no acceleration or relative 
 motion, all grid clocks will tick in unison, and all light sources will 
 pulse in unison, across the entire surface. In this flat space there is 
 clearly a common universal present moment, and a simultaneous clock time 
 reading across the whole space.



 You can add a common universal present moment in as an untestable 
 metaphysical assumption if you like, but that certainly isn't clear just 
 from the physical details of the scenario you're describing. The coordinate 
 grid just provides *a* definition of simultaneity, but there's no guarantee 
 it would agree with that of a metaphysical absolute present!

 To see why, imagine you have two different coordinate grids in this flat 
 space, each moving at constant velocity relative to the other (you can 
 imagine the clocks and rulers are made of some ghostly material that allows 
 the clocks and rulers of one grid to pass right through the clocks and 
 rulers of the other without disturbing them). In that case, if clocks 
 within each grid are synchronized using the Einstein synchronization 
 convention, then the two grids will actually disagree about 
 simultaneity--if events A and B are assigned the same time coordinate by 
 local clocks of grid #1 that are at the same point in spacetime as A and B, 
 then they will be assigned *different* time coordinates by local clocks of 
 grid #2 that are at the same point in spacetime as A and B. Even if p-time 
 simultaneity exists then only one of the grid's definitions of simultaneity 
 could agree with it, and it could easily be that neither of them do.

 A while ago I drew up some diagrams showing a pair of 1D ruler/clock 
 coordinate systems moving alongside each other, illustrating how in each 
 system's own frame their own clocks were synchronized, but the other 
 system's were out-of-sync:

 http://www.jessemazer.com/images/RulerAFrame.gif

 http://www.jessemazer.com/images/RulerBFrame.gif

 as well as a diagram showing that both frames agree about which events 
 locally coincide at the same point in spacetime:

 http://www.jessemazer.com/images/MatchingClocks.gif


  



 Now represent this flat 2D space by an elastic rubber sheet with the 
 coordinate grid drawn on it, and the clocks ticking and light sources 
 pulsing every second with the ticks.

 As you noted, the time distance between any two points will be simply the 
 distance that light travels between them, the time it takes for light to 
 travel from one point to another on somebody's clock, which in this flat 
 universe will be the same for all clocks.


 Now add a large mass to this model. This mass will not be a spherical ball 
 placed on the rubber sheet but the presence of a mass inside a grid cell(s) 
 of the sheet and the effect of that mass is to dilate the rubber sheet at 
 that point. That dilation will cause a bulge in the sheet around the mass, 
 a curvature in space.


 In relativity those rubber sheet diagrams ('embedding diagrams' which 
 'embed' a curved 2D surface in our ordinary 3D space so we can visualize 
 the curvature) already presuppose you have made some (arbitrary, 
 clock-dependent) choice about how to define simultaneity, and then are 
 looking at the curvature of a 2D slice of space (a fixed value of one of 
 the spatial coordinates) within a particular simultaneity surface (a fixed 
 value of the time coordinate). Choose a different definition of 
 simultaneity and you get a different picture of curved space at any 
 instant. 

 Phenomena associated with gravity are more fundamentally understood in 
 terms of *spacetime* being curved, not space. In a spherically symmetric 
 spacetime the curvature only depends on the radial coordinate, so you can 
 draw a different sort of 2D 

Re: A humble suggestion to the group

2014-02-06 Thread John Mikes
Thanks, Russell.
It seems I may be a bit(?) obsolete as compared to your views.

However:
When I walked in to a 'good' hard-copy library I pulled out more than
'exact' notations and found lesser related hints tha
lead me to new ideas (hence my patents). At a 'modern' company tons of
metal-rolles were stored in the Rockys with data
we sometimes wanted to recoop: there were no instruments available already
to decipher them. Your 'spinning disk' may
take care of that, I don't know it.
Curating? one man's 'curation' may hide the interesting part from another
man's search. I bounced into that when in the 50s I worked with the
library-decimalization system and much was lost by faulty interpreting bu
the coder.
The 'audio' ref may be wrong, sorry.
With #5 I wanted to point to our limited knowledge of whatever *may* come
up. I am agnostic.

Respectfully

John M


On Tue, Feb 4, 2014 at 6:47 PM, Russell Standish li...@hpcoders.com.auwrote:

 On Tue, Feb 04, 2014 at 04:23:45PM -0500, John Mikes wrote:
  Russell, thanks for the reply.
  My additional points:
 
  1. You do not believe in technical progress (scanning SELECT
 hardcopy-parts
  would take seconds).

 Wrong. It still takes a long time - of the order of minutes per A4
 page (5-10KB of data, now we have TBs of data to archive and restore),
 even with OCR and ECC technologies, which didn't really exist back in
 the 1980s.

  2. You seem to think of 'storing' everything. Not every page is worth
  'forever'. Think errors - Obsolescence.

 Quite true, but the cost of curating the data (particularly when the
 curating gets it wrong) typically outweighs the cost of storing the
 data and transferring the data to new digital formats when they arise
 by many orders of magnitude.

 BTW - I do curate my own data, mainly because too much cruft makes me
 inefficient, but I don't dare curate my wife's data. So I have to put
 up with the cruft whenever she asks me to find XXX.

  3. Whatever you 'backup' today may get out-of-technique some time and
 lost
  again.

 Hence the spinning disk comment. Nothing else works in the long term.

  4. (to point 1): audio - (based?) storing may apply some newer AI with
  topical comparison and REPLY - so that
 would contribute to #2 as well.

 What do you mean by audio storage? Literally, audio is ephemeral. To
 store it requires a storage medium, whether they be wax cylinders, or
 modern MP3 data files on flash media.

  5-1000 think about alll the rest what we do not even think of today

 We have to think about it today, otherwise it is lost tomorrow.

 
  John Mikes
 
 
  On Mon, Feb 3, 2014 at 4:09 PM, Russell Standish li...@hpcoders.com.au
 wrote:
 
   On Mon, Feb 03, 2014 at 03:45:43PM -0500, John Mikes wrote:
Russell wrote Jan 26:
   
.*.We must make sure we have backups this time!*.
   
How about on paper? E.g. hard copies, like in a millennia-old * L I
 B R
   A R
Y ? *
*John Mikes*
   
   
  
   That's funny - I used to use paper backup copies in my early years of
   computing (think Z80 processor running CP/M with floppy disks), and
   even, on occasion, having to restore from them. I once loaded an APL
   interpreter from printed source code, which took a couple of weeks -
   particular to get it working!
  
   Restoring my laptop from a paper backup would now take several
   centuries, or require a sizable army of typists, even using OCR... not
   so useful.
  
   The only backup/archive that works is spinning disk - a backup that
   is copied to the current used media at all times. I'm in the process
   now of transferring my CD/DVDRom collection to spinning disk - only
   just in time I suspect.
  
   Cheers
  
   --
  
  
  
 
   Prof Russell Standish  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
   Principal, High Performance Coders
   Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
   University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au
  
  
 
  
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Re: Block Universes

2014-02-06 Thread Jesse Mazer
On Thu, Feb 6, 2014 at 4:56 PM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 Jesse,

 Once again, for the nth time, you are making statements about CLOCK time
 simultaneity with which I agree. That has nothing to do with the same
 present moment of p-time.


Because you were *asking* about whether relativity can give a coherent
account of what phrases like same point in spacetime and same coordinate
time really mean physically, that was what this whole tangent was about
until you suddenly switched to explaining how things work in your own
theories (and even then it seemed like the discussion of your own theories
was meant to be confined to the comments in square quotes). You even
started off the post that I was responding to with OK, let's see if I
understand your coordinate spacetime model the same way you do--*my*
coordinate spacetime model (i.e. the standard relativistic one as
understood by physicists), not your own p-time model. Then after some
extended discussion you said Does this model [ignoring my peripheral
comments in square quotes] express what you mean by coordinate time?

Perhaps you could address just the last paragraph of my post, which was
specifically about whether you were still maintaining there was some
inherent (non-metaphysical) incoherence in my model:

'You seem to be just giving a lecture about how things work in your own
metaphysical view, rather than trying to understand how a physicist using
relativity can coherently talk about the two twins having different ages at
the same time or at the same point in spacetime, which I thought was
the original point of your post at
https://groups.google.com/d/msg/everything-list/jFX-wTm_E_Q/I29-svr5V70Jwhere
you said How does your theory, or relativity, account for or predict
this same point with different clock times starting from when the one twin
leaves on his journey? Is there any choice of frames which computes this
result in relativity theory? If so what? If not then we must assume a
separate kind of time in which it is true. That is p-time. Leaving aside
your metaphysics for the moment, do you actually think there is anything
internally incoherent the description I've given about what it means to say
the twins' two different clock readings can happen at the same coordinate
time (using local readings on coordinate clocks of the type I described),
or can coincide at the same point in spacetime (using the operational
definition I gave earlier)? Are you satisfied that relativity theory can
give a coherent operational account of the meaning of these phrases even if
you find the account unsatisfying metaphysically? If so, then it's
obviously not true that we must assume p-time to explain things like the
twin experiment, even if you might *prefer* to explain it by making use of
such an assumption. If you're not satisfied with my operational account,
please give a critique which focuses only on the flaws or undefined
elements you see in that account, without making any reference to your own
alternate account involving p-time and clocks running at c and so forth.'

Jesse

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Re: Indian physicist resolved Black Hole paradox much before Hawking

2014-02-06 Thread Chris de Morsella
Perhaps, but also true that most ALS sufferers do not get such attention  
media adulation.



On Thursday, February 6, 2014 1:49 PM, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:
 
Hawking gets the attention because he has ALS. It's not a tradeoff many would 
want to make.


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Re: Block Universes

2014-02-06 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Jesse,

You are misunderstanding most of my points here! 

By standard I just mean any usual analysis that computes the correct answer 
of the twins' clock time differences when they meet. It seems to me, 
correct me if I'm wrong, that your coordinate time analysis just comes up 
with the exact same clock time differences using a different coordinate 
system. Is that not so? I don't see any way around that no matter what 
coordinate system you use because there is a single correct answer both 
twins agree upon and confirm by looking at each other's watches in their 
common present moment.

Of course you need some coordinate system to do relativity calculations. I 
never claimed you didn't.

It wasn't I that said a coordinate time analysis wouldn't give the correct 
answer. I said it doesn't give any calculation of what the present moment 
IS in which its calculated results occur which they must have to to make 
sense. I thought you said, contrary to my thinking, that coordinate 
spacetime would do that but I don't see it doing it and you agreed that is 
an independent definition, so I don't see the sense of your diversion into 
coordinate time since it gives the same answer for the twins that any 
relativistic analysis does, and it does not calculate a present moment 
because no relativistic approach does that I'm aware of.

Re your last paragraph: First what do YOU mean by proper time? Do you 
simply mean their clock times on their clocks or some other time?

And you say in the last paragraph  then the event of twin A turning 30 is 
assigned the same t-coordinate as the event of twin B turning 40. Who does 
this assigning? And what time is the then in which the assigning takes 
place?

Is this just some arbitrary assignment after the meeting, in the same sense 
that you said that the same point in spacetime had to be independently 
defined? What is the same t-coordinate in which A turns 30 and B turns 
40? What's the value of that t-coordinate that is not the same as the 
different clock times? And what type of time coordinate is it? Clock time, 
coordinate time, proper time?

And finally you say for example both events might be assigned a time of 
t=50 in some coordinate system. That just seems you are saying that it's 
possible for the twins to reset and synchronize their clocks after they 
meet which is obvious.

But even if they do that, one twin still is REALLY younger than the other. 
That real actual time disparity can NOT be reset. There is a real absolute 
time and age difference that relativity can CALCULATE but relativity CANNOT 
explain why that time and age difference exists in the same present moment 
the twins share.

So again I don't see the coordinate time approach adding anything to the 
discussion. It still, correct me if I'm wrong, does NOT calculate the fact 
that the twins meet up with different clock times in a SAME present moment..

Only the assumption of a separate p-time in my theory explains how that 
happens.

Edgar

On Thursday, February 6, 2014 12:34:25 PM UTC-5, jessem wrote:



 On Thu, Feb 6, 2014 at 12:03 PM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.netjavascript:
  wrote:

 Jesse,

 Frankly the utility of this approach seems opaque to me. I don't see how 
 it differs from just being able to calculate the actual clock time 
 differences the twins will have when they meet in 'a same present moment'. 
 Because you say we already have to previously define what the same present 
 moment they meet in is (means) and do that independently of this coordinate 
 time calculation. You first must define, rather than calculate, what a same 
 point in spacetime means by the reflected light method which is fine for 
 establishing two twins are at the same point in spacetime WHEN they are at 
 the same place in space but not otherwise.

 You say that (using coordinate time calculations) For the twins, if you 
 know the coordinates they departed Earth and their coordinate speeds when 
 they departed, and you know the coordinates of any subsequent accelerations 
 (or forces causing those accelerations), you can predict the different 
 coordinates where they will reunite, and what proper time their clocks will 
 show then.

 But that's exactly what the standard equations of relativity give you 
 isn't it? Assuming that by the proper time their clocks will show then 
 (when they meet) is just the t values their clocks read. So I fail to see 
 what we get out of this approach that standard relativity calculations 
 don't give us.



 What do you mean by standard relativity calculations? The standard 
 calculations *are* done using some coordinate system, I don't know of any 
 way to make predictions about future behavior given some initial conditions 
 without making use of a coordinate system. All the equations of relativity 
 you'll find in an introductory textbook, like the time dilation equation, 
 will only apply in inertial coordinate systems for example (though more 
 advanced textbooks will 

Re: Indian physicist resolved Black Hole paradox much before Hawking

2014-02-06 Thread meekerdb
Mitra's theory seems to contradict Penrose's proof that any GR solution with a closed 
event horizon must contain a singularity.  Before Penrose's theorem there was a widespread 
opinion among physicists that something like Mitra's picture must be true and that the 
singularities in solutions like Schwarzschild's were just due to the idealized perfect 
spherical symmetry or the idealized equations of state.  But Penrose bypassed all that and 
made a purely topological argument.  So Hawking isn't saying that Mitra is right, Hawking 
is rejecting Penrose's theorem on the grounds that it doesn't consider quantum effects.


Brent

On 2/6/2014 12:45 PM, Chris de Morsella wrote:

Giving credit where credit is due.

http://twocircles.net/2014feb05/indian_physicist_resolved_black_hole_paradox_much_hawking.html
Indian physicist resolved Black Hole paradox much before Hawking
By K.S.Jayaraman, IANS,
Bangalore : A new paper released late last month in which famed British physicist 
Stephen Hawking contradicts his own theory and says that Black Holes - in the real sense 
- do not actually exist has startled the world science community.
But Abhas Mitra, a theoretical physicist at the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) in 
Mumbai, is not at all surprised. I said more than a decade ago that the Black Hole 
solutions found in Einstein's General Theory of Relativity actually correspond to zero 
mass and are never formed. This implies that the so-called Black Holes candidates must 
be Grey Holes or quasi-Black Holes, Mitra told IANS. Hawking is saying the same thing 
now.
Mitra's papers, published in peer reviewed journals since 2000 - that still remain 
unchallenged - maintain that there can be objects in the universe that are quasi-static 
or eternally collapsing but not exactly Black Holes. This work was largely ignored by 
mainstream physicists as well as the media while Hawking's recent two-page online paper 
saying exactly the same thing has become hot international news, Mitra noted.
He said this happened even though several American astrophysicists verified his 
prediction that such quasi-Black Holes must have strong magnetic fields unlike the real 
Black Holes, adding that even Harvard University issued a press release to this effect 
in 2006.
A Black Hole, according to its proponents, results from gravitational collapse of a 
massive star after it runs out of fuel for nuclear fusion. A Black Hole is all vacuum 
except for an infinitely dense central point called singularity, Mitra said.
As the theory goes, a Black Hole is surrounded by an imaginary boundary called Event 
Horizon that shuts everything within, allowing nothing - not even light - to escape. An 
object crossing the Event Horizon gets forever trapped and crushed at the singularity, 
destroying all the information about the object as well. This directly conflicts with 
the laws of quantum physics that say information can never be completely wiped out. This 
is the Black Hole information loss paradox.
The Black Holes also pose a Firewall Paradox which arises from the claim that Event 
Horizon, under the quantum theory, must actually be transformed into a highly energetic 
region, or firewall, that would burn any approaching object to a crisp. Although the 
firewall obeyed quantum rules, it flouted Einstein's General Theory of Relativity, Mitra 
said.
Hawking's latest paper attempts to resolve the Firewall Paradox by proposing that 
gravitational collapse produces only an Apparent Horizon but not an Event Horizon that 
is the hallmark of a true Black Hole. He said the absence of Event Horizons means there 
are no Black Holes in the sense they are usually visualized. Mitra said he has shown 
before that there can be no Event Horizon by using the classical theory without invoking 
uncertain quantum physics as Hawking has done.
In fact, in a series of peer reviewed papers, Mitra has shown that no true Black Holes 
can ever form. The so-called Black Holes observed by astronomers are actually radiation 
pressure supported Eternally Collapsing Objects (ECOs). These balls of fire are so hot 
that even neutrons and protons melt there and whose outward radiation pressure balances 
the inward pull of gravity to arrest a catastrophic collapse before any Black Hole or 
'singularity' would actually form.

Incidentally, our Sun is also a ball of fire hot enough to melt atoms, Mitra 
noted.
Thus, the realization that there can be no true Black Holes and the so-called Black 
Holes are actually ECOs resolve both the Information and Firewall paradoxes, Mitra said.
Hawking has now arrived at the same conclusion from tentative arguments while our 
results are based on exact calculations and were published in a series of peer-reviewed 
papers over 13 years ago, Mitra added.

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Re: Indian physicist resolved Black Hole paradox much before Hawking

2014-02-06 Thread LizR
On 7 February 2014 11:17, Chris de Morsella cdemorse...@yahoo.com wrote:

 Perhaps, but also true that most ALS sufferers do not get such attention 
 media adulation.


Perhaps because they aren't world famous scientists? I'm not sure what you
expect here!

I appreciate Mitra feeling bitter about this, but at least it should get
his result more public awareness. I do find it very interesting, more so
than any squabbling about who was first. Looks like Mitra has done a far
better job anyway so that's what I'm really interested in. (Maybe now there
will be an article for dummies like me in scientific american...)

Also tbh I haven't really thought Hawking was doing much actual science for
a long time, as an interested lay-person at least, despite him being called
in on the odd well-publicised bet ... (plus his imaginary time idea seems
to have dropped off the radar). He's good for the odd quote about the mind
of God and fire in the equations...

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Re: Block Universes

2014-02-06 Thread LizR
On 7 February 2014 11:30, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:


 But even if they do that, one twin still is REALLY younger than the other.
 That real actual time disparity can NOT be reset. There is a real absolute
 time and age difference that relativity can CALCULATE but relativity CANNOT
 explain why that time and age difference exists in the same present moment
 the twins share.

 So far it's been explained by me, Brent and Jesse, not to mention Albert
Einstein and countless popularisers of relativity theory (apologes to
anyone else on this list who has also explained it that I've forgotten). To
re-re-rehash it briefly, the difference in ages is explained by the
different paths through space-time taken by the twins before they meet
again at a particular point in space-time.

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Re: Eidetic memory and the comp hypothesis

2014-02-06 Thread Gabriel Bodeen
On Wednesday, February 5, 2014 7:32:51 PM UTC-6, Pierz wrote:

 The phenomenon of eidetic (photographic) memory is well established as a 
 reality. ...


Huh, are you sure?  I remember always hearing that it was a myth.   I 
didn't find anything which settles it conclusively in a brief search, but 
http://psychology.wikia.com/wiki/Eidetic_imagery is worth a look.  As 
usual, the reality is more nuanced than popular notions suggest.

-Gabe

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Re: Block Universes

2014-02-06 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Jesse,

So we can only discuss your ideas and not mine? I suggest the way to 
progress is to discuss and compare both which is what I was/am doing...

Yes, I'd like to understand your take on whether relativity can give a 
coherent account of what phrases like same point in spacetime  really 
mean physically. I think I understand that from your reflected light test.

But my point remains that that just provides a limited definition of a 
local same point in spacetime. It does NOT explain WHY the twins meet in 
that same present moment. Rather it just defines that they do after the 
fact with the reflected light test. But it doesn't explain why and that is 
something relativity can't seem to calculate or explain. 

What relativity does here is admit there is something it can't explain or 
calculate (why the twins meet in a shared present moment) and then says 
well at least we can define it locally with a reflected light test. But 
that is not sufficient to explain why. Only my p-time theory seems to be 
able to do that

Edgar



On Thursday, February 6, 2014 5:06:55 PM UTC-5, jessem wrote:


 On Thu, Feb 6, 2014 at 4:56 PM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.netjavascript:
  wrote:

 Jesse,

 Once again, for the nth time, you are making statements about CLOCK time 
 simultaneity with which I agree. That has nothing to do with the same 
 present moment of p-time.


 Because you were *asking* about whether relativity can give a coherent 
 account of what phrases like same point in spacetime and same coordinate 
 time really mean physically, that was what this whole tangent was about 
 until you suddenly switched to explaining how things work in your own 
 theories (and even then it seemed like the discussion of your own theories 
 was meant to be confined to the comments in square quotes). You even 
 started off the post that I was responding to with OK, let's see if I 
 understand your coordinate spacetime model the same way you do--*my* 
 coordinate spacetime model (i.e. the standard relativistic one as 
 understood by physicists), not your own p-time model. Then after some 
 extended discussion you said Does this model [ignoring my peripheral 
 comments in square quotes] express what you mean by coordinate time?

 Perhaps you could address just the last paragraph of my post, which was 
 specifically about whether you were still maintaining there was some 
 inherent (non-metaphysical) incoherence in my model:

 'You seem to be just giving a lecture about how things work in your own 
 metaphysical view, rather than trying to understand how a physicist using 
 relativity can coherently talk about the two twins having different ages at 
 the same time or at the same point in spacetime, which I thought was 
 the original point of your post at 
 https://groups.google.com/d/msg/everything-list/jFX-wTm_E_Q/I29-svr5V70Jwhere 
 you said How does your theory, or relativity, account for or predict 
 this same point with different clock times starting from when the one twin 
 leaves on his journey? Is there any choice of frames which computes this 
 result in relativity theory? If so what? If not then we must assume a 
 separate kind of time in which it is true. That is p-time. Leaving aside 
 your metaphysics for the moment, do you actually think there is anything 
 internally incoherent the description I've given about what it means to say 
 the twins' two different clock readings can happen at the same coordinate 
 time (using local readings on coordinate clocks of the type I described), 
 or can coincide at the same point in spacetime (using the operational 
 definition I gave earlier)? Are you satisfied that relativity theory can 
 give a coherent operational account of the meaning of these phrases even if 
 you find the account unsatisfying metaphysically? If so, then it's 
 obviously not true that we must assume p-time to explain things like the 
 twin experiment, even if you might *prefer* to explain it by making use of 
 such an assumption. If you're not satisfied with my operational account, 
 please give a critique which focuses only on the flaws or undefined 
 elements you see in that account, without making any reference to your own 
 alternate account involving p-time and clocks running at c and so forth.'

 Jesse



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Re: Block Universes

2014-02-06 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Liz, Liz, Liz,

Of course the time/age difference can be explained but NOT the fact that it 
occurs in the SAME present moment, a moment distinct and different from 
clock time.

You still don't grasp the basic issue here

Edgar

On Thursday, February 6, 2014 5:41:36 PM UTC-5, Liz R wrote:

 On 7 February 2014 11:30, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.net javascript:wrote:


 But even if they do that, one twin still is REALLY younger than the 
 other. That real actual time disparity can NOT be reset. There is a real 
 absolute time and age difference that relativity can CALCULATE but 
 relativity CANNOT explain why that time and age difference exists in the 
 same present moment the twins share.

 So far it's been explained by me, Brent and Jesse, not to mention Albert 
 Einstein and countless popularisers of relativity theory (apologes to 
 anyone else on this list who has also explained it that I've forgotten). To 
 re-re-rehash it briefly, the difference in ages is explained by the 
 different paths through space-time taken by the twins before they meet 
 again at a particular point in space-time.



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Re: Real science versus interpretations of science

2014-02-06 Thread LizR
A most excellent post, PGC!

On 7 February 2014 10:09, Platonist Guitar Cowboy
multiplecit...@gmail.comwrote:

 On Thu, Feb 6, 2014 at 5:31 PM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 Ghibbsa,

 Boy O boy. Reread my post to you. It was completely complementary, only
 to be met not with appreciation but with snide remarks and accusations.

 Anyway I officially withdraw it as it was obviously in error...


 Then the registrars, board of directors, volunteer representatives,
 unions, bureaucrats, technicians, warriors, and brave souls maintaining the
 ring of everything-listers, not including yours truly lazy in this regard, 
 *officially
 decree*, with dueness in forthright diligence, AND purposefully noting
 the swearing  protocolization of plaintiff's withdrawal of an overly ardent
 compliment to himself by himself, due to an error in the plaintiffs
 overestimation of himself, projecting his own awesomeness onto critical
 encouragement by the forgiving defendant in form of a normal post outside
 of p-time, as everyone is prone to commit from time to time, is noted and
 archived according to protocols of the appropriate paragraphs and sections.

 Howeveriver, this official withdrawal marking a landmark turn of events on
 this list, whencewithforthnight for now appeased, the angry souls of
 plaintiff's retract-rebuttalized error of unity in
 comradery-mass-dorkification of the rest of the members of this noble-bloat
 house of postingoods, unsearchable by any known box or tab, logical and
 otherwise, now cast into the iron lightning of Odin's dong song with a
 single post into the eternity of P-time.

 Hencewithtoforthcoming, all will change in the realized interpretations of
 Science because of the gravy gravity of this officialized, sealed,
 notarized, proof-read, nsa devoured, spamificationationalizeducation of the
 rest of the dumb list for we all like the gravy bit, unless we are
 greenitarian, which remains solemnly, in the light of day, a dark matter of
 information-urination from black holes spun out of standards more than
 blocks of verses singing in unison of angry hawks and birds.

 All rejoice and thank the Edgar,
 as well and more the forgiver,
 foreverchangeternally p-time of the past, present, future and on the
 left.

 Seeriousee? Clarification between the real and interpretation has been
 achieved in this thread. Thank you all. From the heart. Officially. PGC



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Re: Block Universes

2014-02-06 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Jesse,

OK, here's another question to get to the crux.

You claim the twins meet in the same point of spacetime.

OK, if that's a real point in spacetime it MUST have a t-coordinate. What 
is the value of that t-coordinate? And what's the relation of that 
t-coordinate to the different clock time t-coordinates of the twins? What's 
the transform that converts the two different clock time t values to the 
SAME same point t value?

I say there isn't any, that relativity can't supply one. And that this 
means that, while relativity can arbitrarily DEFINE a same moment in 
spacetime as you do, it can NOT explain or calculate it.

Only my p-time theory does this, relativity doesn't

Response?

Edgar

On Thursday, February 6, 2014 5:06:55 PM UTC-5, jessem wrote:


 On Thu, Feb 6, 2014 at 4:56 PM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.netjavascript:
  wrote:

 Jesse,

 Once again, for the nth time, you are making statements about CLOCK time 
 simultaneity with which I agree. That has nothing to do with the same 
 present moment of p-time.


 Because you were *asking* about whether relativity can give a coherent 
 account of what phrases like same point in spacetime and same coordinate 
 time really mean physically, that was what this whole tangent was about 
 until you suddenly switched to explaining how things work in your own 
 theories (and even then it seemed like the discussion of your own theories 
 was meant to be confined to the comments in square quotes). You even 
 started off the post that I was responding to with OK, let's see if I 
 understand your coordinate spacetime model the same way you do--*my* 
 coordinate spacetime model (i.e. the standard relativistic one as 
 understood by physicists), not your own p-time model. Then after some 
 extended discussion you said Does this model [ignoring my peripheral 
 comments in square quotes] express what you mean by coordinate time?

 Perhaps you could address just the last paragraph of my post, which was 
 specifically about whether you were still maintaining there was some 
 inherent (non-metaphysical) incoherence in my model:

 'You seem to be just giving a lecture about how things work in your own 
 metaphysical view, rather than trying to understand how a physicist using 
 relativity can coherently talk about the two twins having different ages at 
 the same time or at the same point in spacetime, which I thought was 
 the original point of your post at 
 https://groups.google.com/d/msg/everything-list/jFX-wTm_E_Q/I29-svr5V70Jwhere 
 you said How does your theory, or relativity, account for or predict 
 this same point with different clock times starting from when the one twin 
 leaves on his journey? Is there any choice of frames which computes this 
 result in relativity theory? If so what? If not then we must assume a 
 separate kind of time in which it is true. That is p-time. Leaving aside 
 your metaphysics for the moment, do you actually think there is anything 
 internally incoherent the description I've given about what it means to say 
 the twins' two different clock readings can happen at the same coordinate 
 time (using local readings on coordinate clocks of the type I described), 
 or can coincide at the same point in spacetime (using the operational 
 definition I gave earlier)? Are you satisfied that relativity theory can 
 give a coherent operational account of the meaning of these phrases even if 
 you find the account unsatisfying metaphysically? If so, then it's 
 obviously not true that we must assume p-time to explain things like the 
 twin experiment, even if you might *prefer* to explain it by making use of 
 such an assumption. If you're not satisfied with my operational account, 
 please give a critique which focuses only on the flaws or undefined 
 elements you see in that account, without making any reference to your own 
 alternate account involving p-time and clocks running at c and so forth.'

 Jesse



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Re: Block Universes

2014-02-06 Thread Jesse Mazer
On Thu, Feb 6, 2014 at 5:30 PM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 Jesse,

 You are misunderstanding most of my points here!

 By standard I just mean any usual analysis that computes the correct
 answer of the twins' clock time differences when they meet. It seems to me,
 correct me if I'm wrong, that your coordinate time analysis just comes up
 with the exact same clock time differences using a different coordinate
 system. Is that not so?


Different than what, exactly? Did I mention any other coordinate system?



 Of course you need some coordinate system to do relativity calculations. I
 never claimed you didn't.


You said I fail to see what we get out of this approach that standard
relativity calculations don't give us, where this approach referred to
my coordinate-based analysis. So that suggested you were drawing a contrast
between this approach and some distinct standard relativity
calculations. What did you mean by that latter phrase?




 It wasn't I that said a coordinate time analysis wouldn't give the correct
 answer. I said it doesn't give any calculation of what the present moment
 IS in which its calculated results occur which they must have to to make
 sense.


By what the present moment IS do you mean your own p-time, as opposed to
just clock time simultaneity? If so, I simply don't see why you must have
such a p-time in order for these results to make sense, the notions of
same point in spacetime and coordinate time which I have been making
use of seem perfectly adequate to me. I thought you were trying to make an
*argument* as to why they are inadequate on their own, one that goes beyond
it's too counterintuitive or it doesn't match our qualitative conscious
experience of time. If you have such an argument, please present it,
making no reference to conscious experience or intuitions!



 I thought you said, contrary to my thinking, that coordinate spacetime
 would do that


Do what? Establish an absolute definition of present? If so, of course
not, I never suggested such a thing...if something you mean something else
by do that, please elaborate.



 but I don't see it doing it and you agreed that is an independent
 definition, so I don't see the sense of your diversion into coordinate time


Because you kept asking me questions about it!


 Re your last paragraph: First what do YOU mean by proper time? Do you
 simply mean their clock times on their clocks or some other time?


Yes, that's what proper time means in relativity, the proper time for any
observer (or other objects) is just the time that they would measure on a
clock carried with them. Usually physicists talk about the proper time
interval between a pair of events on a given object's worldline, to avoid
ambiguity about when the clock was set to read 0.





 And you say in the last paragraph  then the event of twin A turning 30
 is assigned the same t-coordinate as the event of twin B turning 40. Who
 does this assigning? And what time is the then in which the assigning
 takes place?


The coordinate system I have been discussing.




 Is this just some arbitrary assignment after the meeting,


No, it's the reading on the coordinate clock that was at the same point in
spacetime as the meeting.




 in the same sense that you said that the same point in spacetime had to be
 independently defined? What is the same t-coordinate in which A turns 30
 and B turns 40? What's the value of that t-coordinate that is not the same
 as the different clock times?



Again, the coordinate clock. I already explained this in detail several
times, this was the point of my introduction of the third clock besides the
clocks of the two twins, the coordinate clock which I labeled clock C
that I discussed in
https://groups.google.com/d/msg/everything-list/jFX-wTm_E_Q/m91rxoG5LvkJand
https://groups.google.com/d/msg/everything-list/jFX-wTm_E_Q/JJKlMk7vDNYJ



 And what type of time coordinate is it? Clock time, coordinate time,
 proper time?



The coordinate time of an event *is* just clock time on the local
coordinate clock that was at the same point in spacetime as the event. And
of course all clock times are also proper times for the clocks themselves.


 And finally you say for example both events might be assigned a time of
 t=50 in some coordinate system. That just seems you are saying that it's
 possible for the twins to reset and synchronize their clocks after they
 meet which is obvious.


No, t=50 is the time on the coordinate clock. The twins don't do anything
to their clocks.




 But even if they do that, one twin still is REALLY younger than the other.
 That real actual time disparity can NOT be reset. There is a real absolute
 time and age difference that relativity can CALCULATE but relativity CANNOT
 explain why that time and age difference exists in the same present moment
 the twins share.


I don't know what counts as an explanation for you--presumably any
explanation that didn't make use of p-time would *by 

Re: Real science versus interpretations of science

2014-02-06 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Liz and Cowboy,

Yes, I guess so if your idea of science is discussing your favorite science 
fiction movies!
:-)

Edgar



On Thursday, February 6, 2014 5:52:20 PM UTC-5, Liz R wrote:

 A most excellent post, PGC!

 On 7 February 2014 10:09, Platonist Guitar Cowboy 
 multipl...@gmail.comjavascript:
  wrote:

 On Thu, Feb 6, 2014 at 5:31 PM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.netjavascript:
  wrote:

 Ghibbsa,

 Boy O boy. Reread my post to you. It was completely complementary, only 
 to be met not with appreciation but with snide remarks and accusations.

 Anyway I officially withdraw it as it was obviously in error...


 Then the registrars, board of directors, volunteer representatives, 
 unions, bureaucrats, technicians, warriors, and brave souls maintaining the 
 ring of everything-listers, not including yours truly lazy in this regard, 
 *officially 
 decree*, with dueness in forthright diligence, AND purposefully noting 
 the swearing  protocolization of plaintiff's withdrawal of an overly ardent 
 compliment to himself by himself, due to an error in the plaintiffs 
 overestimation of himself, projecting his own awesomeness onto critical 
 encouragement by the forgiving defendant in form of a normal post outside 
 of p-time, as everyone is prone to commit from time to time, is noted and 
 archived according to protocols of the appropriate paragraphs and sections.

 Howeveriver, this official withdrawal marking a landmark turn of events 
 on this list, whencewithforthnight for now appeased, the angry souls of 
 plaintiff's retract-rebuttalized error of unity in 
 comradery-mass-dorkification of the rest of the members of this noble-bloat 
 house of postingoods, unsearchable by any known box or tab, logical and 
 otherwise, now cast into the iron lightning of Odin's dong song with a 
 single post into the eternity of P-time.

 Hencewithtoforthcoming, all will change in the realized interpretations 
 of Science because of the gravy gravity of this officialized, sealed, 
 notarized, proof-read, nsa devoured, spamificationationalizeducation of the 
 rest of the dumb list for we all like the gravy bit, unless we are 
 greenitarian, which remains solemnly, in the light of day, a dark matter of 
 information-urination from black holes spun out of standards more than 
 blocks of verses singing in unison of angry hawks and birds.

 All rejoice and thank the Edgar, 
 as well and more the forgiver, 
 foreverchangeternally p-time of the past, present, future and on the 
 left.

 Seeriousee? Clarification between the real and interpretation has been 
 achieved in this thread. Thank you all. From the heart. Officially. PGC 
  

  



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Re: Block Universes

2014-02-06 Thread Jesse Mazer
On Thu, Feb 6, 2014 at 5:45 PM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 Jesse,

 So we can only discuss your ideas and not mine?


No, but it's pretty irritating when you ask me questions specifically about
*my* (relativistic model), and then when I give you answers you suddenly
change the subject and make scolding comments like Once again, for the nth
time, you are making statements about CLOCK time simultaneity with which I
agree. That has nothing to do with the same present moment of p-time. And
now when I explain that I was just responding to your questions and give
you quotes showing that you had been asking about my model, instead of
apologizing for losing track of what we'd been talking about you get all
pouty and pretend I'm saying we can only discuss my ideas. I just don't
like being scolded for giving an on-topic response to some questions of
yours, that's all.



 I suggest the way to progress is to discuss and compare both which is what
 I was/am doing...

 Yes, I'd like to understand your take on whether relativity can give a
 coherent account of what phrases like same point in spacetime  really
 mean physically. I think I understand that from your reflected light test.

 But my point remains that that just provides a limited definition of a
 local same point in spacetime. It does NOT explain WHY the twins meet in
 that same present moment. Rather it just defines that they do after the
 fact with the reflected light test.


Like I said, it can also predict that this will happen in advance, by using
an inertial coordinate system and the known equations of physics to predict
both the path and clock readings of the twins and to model the light
signals being sent out and reflected between them, and predicting what
their clocks read at the point where the reflection time goes to zero.




 But it doesn't explain why and that is something relativity can't seem to
 calculate or explain.

 What relativity does here is admit there is something it can't explain or
 calculate (why the twins meet in a shared present moment)


Can you give an operational definition of this shared present moment, one
that goes beyond just the observation that the time between an action
directed at the other gets an almost immediate response (whether we're
talking about light signals or just about one twin saying hey! and
observing the other to immediately begin turning around)? Or is the
existence of this shared present moment only verifiable in terms of
conscious experience or metaphysical intuitions or something?

Jesse

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Re: Block Universes

2014-02-06 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Jesse,

OK, what I don't understand in this clearer example near the end of your 
post is you say The coordinate time of an event *is* just clock time on 
the local coordinate clock that was at the same point in spacetime as the 
event.

This clock, call it C, on the grid that was at the same point in spacetime 
as the meeting event (which takes place on earth) is also a clock on earth, 
at earth's location on the grid. Twin B's clock also stayed at that exact 
same x,y,z point on the coordinate grid during the trip, and there was no 
relative motion between B and C.

So why does B's clock read 40 years and clock C, which you claim gives the 
t-value of the meeting event, read 50 years when they were both at the same 
location during the trip?

Aren't you mistaken here since clocks B and C are comoving throughout the 
duration of the trip and thus must remain synchronized?

If that is true you seem to be saying that we must preferentially take the 
stay at home twin's clock time as the correct t-value of the same point in 
spacetime that the meeting occurs, the clock time of the observer that 
didn't move from the start to end point. Is that correct?

If so, again it's just a definition, and a strange one at that, because no 
matter if the traveling twin resets his clock to that t-value you claim is 
the correct/natural? t value of the meeting event, his age still remains 
just 30.

Edgar




On Thursday, February 6, 2014 6:12:10 PM UTC-5, jessem wrote:



 On Thu, Feb 6, 2014 at 5:30 PM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.netjavascript:
  wrote:

 Jesse,

 You are misunderstanding most of my points here! 

 By standard I just mean any usual analysis that computes the correct 
 answer of the twins' clock time differences when they meet. It seems to me, 
 correct me if I'm wrong, that your coordinate time analysis just comes up 
 with the exact same clock time differences using a different coordinate 
 system. Is that not so?


 Different than what, exactly? Did I mention any other coordinate system?
  


 Of course you need some coordinate system to do relativity calculations. 
 I never claimed you didn't.


 You said I fail to see what we get out of this approach that standard 
 relativity calculations don't give us, where this approach referred to 
 my coordinate-based analysis. So that suggested you were drawing a contrast 
 between this approach and some distinct standard relativity 
 calculations. What did you mean by that latter phrase?

  


 It wasn't I that said a coordinate time analysis wouldn't give the 
 correct answer. I said it doesn't give any calculation of what the present 
 moment IS in which its calculated results occur which they must have to to 
 make sense.


 By what the present moment IS do you mean your own p-time, as opposed to 
 just clock time simultaneity? If so, I simply don't see why you must have 
 such a p-time in order for these results to make sense, the notions of 
 same point in spacetime and coordinate time which I have been making 
 use of seem perfectly adequate to me. I thought you were trying to make an 
 *argument* as to why they are inadequate on their own, one that goes beyond 
 it's too counterintuitive or it doesn't match our qualitative conscious 
 experience of time. If you have such an argument, please present it, 
 making no reference to conscious experience or intuitions!

  

 I thought you said, contrary to my thinking, that coordinate spacetime 
 would do that


 Do what? Establish an absolute definition of present? If so, of course 
 not, I never suggested such a thing...if something you mean something else 
 by do that, please elaborate.

  

 but I don't see it doing it and you agreed that is an independent 
 definition, so I don't see the sense of your diversion into coordinate time


 Because you kept asking me questions about it!


 Re your last paragraph: First what do YOU mean by proper time? Do you 
 simply mean their clock times on their clocks or some other time?


 Yes, that's what proper time means in relativity, the proper time for 
 any observer (or other objects) is just the time that they would measure on 
 a clock carried with them. Usually physicists talk about the proper time 
 interval between a pair of events on a given object's worldline, to avoid 
 ambiguity about when the clock was set to read 0.


  


 And you say in the last paragraph  then the event of twin A turning 30 
 is assigned the same t-coordinate as the event of twin B turning 40. Who 
 does this assigning? And what time is the then in which the assigning 
 takes place?


 The coordinate system I have been discussing.

  


 Is this just some arbitrary assignment after the meeting,


 No, it's the reading on the coordinate clock that was at the same point in 
 spacetime as the meeting.


  

  in the same sense that you said that the same point in spacetime had to 
 be independently defined? What is the same t-coordinate in which A turns 
 30 and B turns 40? What's the 

Re: Block Universes

2014-02-06 Thread Quentin Anciaux
2014-02-06 Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net:

 Jesse,

 Once again, for the nth time, you are making statements about CLOCK time
 simultaneity with which I agree. That has nothing to do with the same
 present moment of p-time.


Once again, for the nth time, there is absolutely no need of p-time for
that. It's so obvious, are you blind not to see... (no, no that's not some
blatant obvious plagiarism)

Quentin



 Edgar



 On Thursday, February 6, 2014 12:15:16 PM UTC-5, jessem wrote:



 On Thu, Feb 6, 2014 at 9:38 AM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.net wrote:

 Jesse,

 OK, let's see if I understand your coordinate spacetime model the same
 way you do.

 Start with an empty space with no matter or energy.

 [But this is impossible in my theory since the presence of matter/energy
 is what creates space in my model so make that a space filled with a thin
 homogeneous distribution of matter. This is irrelevant to the discussion,
 just a note.]

 This space will be flat, locally at least. [On cosmological scales it
 will be curved but we can ignore that for now]

 Now assume this is a 2D space to make things simpler.

 Now drop an arbitrary orthogonal coordinate grid on this space.

 Next place a clock and a light source at each grid intersection. The
 clock and light source will be synchronized and the light source will emit
 a pulse of light at every second the clock ticks.

 Note that, in this flat homogeneous space with no acceleration or
 relative motion, all grid clocks will tick in unison, and all light sources
 will pulse in unison, across the entire surface. In this flat space there
 is clearly a common universal present moment, and a simultaneous clock time
 reading across the whole space.



 You can add a common universal present moment in as an untestable
 metaphysical assumption if you like, but that certainly isn't clear just
 from the physical details of the scenario you're describing. The coordinate
 grid just provides *a* definition of simultaneity, but there's no guarantee
 it would agree with that of a metaphysical absolute present!

 To see why, imagine you have two different coordinate grids in this flat
 space, each moving at constant velocity relative to the other (you can
 imagine the clocks and rulers are made of some ghostly material that allows
 the clocks and rulers of one grid to pass right through the clocks and
 rulers of the other without disturbing them). In that case, if clocks
 within each grid are synchronized using the Einstein synchronization
 convention, then the two grids will actually disagree about
 simultaneity--if events A and B are assigned the same time coordinate by
 local clocks of grid #1 that are at the same point in spacetime as A and B,
 then they will be assigned *different* time coordinates by local clocks of
 grid #2 that are at the same point in spacetime as A and B. Even if p-time
 simultaneity exists then only one of the grid's definitions of simultaneity
 could agree with it, and it could easily be that neither of them do.

 A while ago I drew up some diagrams showing a pair of 1D ruler/clock
 coordinate systems moving alongside each other, illustrating how in each
 system's own frame their own clocks were synchronized, but the other
 system's were out-of-sync:

 http://www.jessemazer.com/images/RulerAFrame.gif

 http://www.jessemazer.com/images/RulerBFrame.gif

 as well as a diagram showing that both frames agree about which events
 locally coincide at the same point in spacetime:

 http://www.jessemazer.com/images/MatchingClocks.gif






 Now represent this flat 2D space by an elastic rubber sheet with the
 coordinate grid drawn on it, and the clocks ticking and light sources
 pulsing every second with the ticks.

 As you noted, the time distance between any two points will be simply the
 distance that light travels between them, the time it takes for light to
 travel from one point to another on somebody's clock, which in this flat
 universe will be the same for all clocks.


 Now add a large mass to this model. This mass will not be a spherical
 ball placed on the rubber sheet but the presence of a mass inside a grid
 cell(s) of the sheet and the effect of that mass is to dilate the rubber
 sheet at that point. That dilation will cause a bulge in the sheet around
 the mass, a curvature in space.


 In relativity those rubber sheet diagrams ('embedding diagrams' which
 'embed' a curved 2D surface in our ordinary 3D space so we can visualize
 the curvature) already presuppose you have made some (arbitrary,
 clock-dependent) choice about how to define simultaneity, and then are
 looking at the curvature of a 2D slice of space (a fixed value of one of
 the spatial coordinates) within a particular simultaneity surface (a fixed
 value of the time coordinate). Choose a different definition of
 simultaneity and you get a different picture of curved space at any
 instant.

 Phenomena associated with gravity are more fundamentally understood in
 terms of 

Re: Block Universes

2014-02-06 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Jesse,

What's wrong with conscious experience? Every observation of science is 
ultimately a conscious experience. The observation of a present moment we 
share when we are together in space is the most FUNDAMENTAL observation of 
all.

It's much much more than an intuition. It's a directly observable FACT.

As for operational definition, I explained in detail how the theory works 
on numerous occasions. In fact you criticize me in your first paragraph for 
doing that too much!

Edgar

On Thursday, February 6, 2014 6:28:30 PM UTC-5, jessem wrote:



 On Thu, Feb 6, 2014 at 5:45 PM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.netjavascript:
  wrote:

 Jesse,

 So we can only discuss your ideas and not mine?


 No, but it's pretty irritating when you ask me questions specifically 
 about *my* (relativistic model), and then when I give you answers you 
 suddenly change the subject and make scolding comments like Once again, 
 for the nth time, you are making statements about CLOCK time simultaneity 
 with which I agree. That has nothing to do with the same present moment of 
 p-time. And now when I explain that I was just responding to your 
 questions and give you quotes showing that you had been asking about my 
 model, instead of apologizing for losing track of what we'd been talking 
 about you get all pouty and pretend I'm saying we can only discuss my 
 ideas. I just don't like being scolded for giving an on-topic response to 
 some questions of yours, that's all.

  

 I suggest the way to progress is to discuss and compare both which is 
 what I was/am doing...

 Yes, I'd like to understand your take on whether relativity can give a 
 coherent account of what phrases like same point in spacetime  really 
 mean physically. I think I understand that from your reflected light test.

 But my point remains that that just provides a limited definition of a 
 local same point in spacetime. It does NOT explain WHY the twins meet in 
 that same present moment. Rather it just defines that they do after the 
 fact with the reflected light test.


 Like I said, it can also predict that this will happen in advance, by 
 using an inertial coordinate system and the known equations of physics to 
 predict both the path and clock readings of the twins and to model the 
 light signals being sent out and reflected between them, and predicting 
 what their clocks read at the point where the reflection time goes to zero.


  

 But it doesn't explain why and that is something relativity can't seem to 
 calculate or explain. 

 What relativity does here is admit there is something it can't explain or 
 calculate (why the twins meet in a shared present moment) 


 Can you give an operational definition of this shared present moment, 
 one that goes beyond just the observation that the time between an action 
 directed at the other gets an almost immediate response (whether we're 
 talking about light signals or just about one twin saying hey! and 
 observing the other to immediately begin turning around)? Or is the 
 existence of this shared present moment only verifiable in terms of 
 conscious experience or metaphysical intuitions or something?

 Jesse



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Re: Block Universes

2014-02-06 Thread Quentin Anciaux
2014-02-06 Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net:

 Quentin,

 For starters, as I've said on numerous occasions,  it solves the question
 of how observers can have different relativistic clock times in the same
 present moment.


It doesn't solve anything, because it's not a problem for relativity... I
agree that solving a non-existent problem is easy but useless.



 Edgar



 On Thursday, February 6, 2014 1:33:02 PM UTC-5, Quentin Anciaux wrote:

 I've read all of them, there is nothing about what it is supposed to
 solve...

 Please state it here and now... do not refer to inexistant post.


 2014-02-06 Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.net:

 Quentin,

 Please refer to my extensive posts to Jesse for that...

 Edgar


 On Thursday, February 6, 2014 1:21:13 PM UTC-5, Quentin Anciaux wrote:

 So, what is it ? What is it supposed to solve in the first place ?


 2014-02-06 Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.net:

 Quentin,

 But it's NOT the case...

 Edgar



 On Thursday, February 6, 2014 10:52:58 AM UTC-5, Quentin Anciaux wrote:




 2014-02-06 Jesse Mazer laser...@gmail.com:



 On Thu, Feb 6, 2014 at 9:01 AM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.netwrote:

 But recall that p-time is not a directly measurable quantity so
 arbitrary precision does not apply. You still haven't grasped the 
 concept
 correctly. P-time has no direct measure, because the present moment is 
 that
 in which all measures, including those of clock time, are computed.


 I don't recall you ever spelling that out in conversation with me,
 thanks for clarifying. In the past people had asked you about how to
 determine p-time and you had said things like we should be able to 
 compute
 p-time from Omega, the curvature of the universe (in the post at
 http://www.mail-archive.com/everything-list@googlegroups.
 com/msg47450.html ). So if you now say that determining which
 events are simultaneous in p-time is fundamentally impossible for any 
 being
 within the universe, that answers what I was wondering about in 
 question #1.


 If that's the case... what good is it to entertain such p-time...
 it's useless. Predict nothing, cannot be measured. What is p-time 
 supposed
 to solve ?



 Jesse




 Nevertheless the fact of existence of all observers and thus of
 everything in the present moment is a direct empirical observation. 
 Just
 like consciousness it is not subject to measure, but that doesn't mean 
 it
 doesn't exist.

 Edgar

 On Thursday, February 6, 2014 12:47:05 AM UTC-5, jessem wrote:



 On Wed, Feb 5, 2014 at 7:38 PM, meekerdb meek...@verizon.netwrote:

  On 2/5/2014 9:31 AM, Jesse Mazer wrote:

 --question 1 dealt with the question of how YOU would define
 p-time simultaneity in a cosmological model where there's no way to 
 slice
 the 4D spacetime into a series of 3D surfaces such that the density 
 of
 matter is perfectly uniform on each slice (and that uniform can be
 characterized by the parameter Omega), unlike in the simple FLRW 
 model
 where matter is assumed to be distributed in this perfectly uniform 
 way.


 I don't see that perfect uniformity is necessary.  We have
 calculated our epoch relative to the CMB as 13.8By.  I assume any 
 other
 scientific species in the universe could do the same and so say 
 whether
 they were 'at the same time' as measured by expansion of the cosmos. 
  I
 don't see how the existence of galaxies and galaxy clusters 
 precludes this
 kind of measurement.



 Using the CMB may give an approximate answer, but would you argue
 it could distinguish between different simultaneity definitions that 
 agree
 approximately when averaged over large scales, but disagree somewhat 
 about
 the details of simultaneity in highly curved regions? For example, 
 could
 the CMB be used to define a unique definition of simultaneity in the
 neighborhood of a black hole (where coordinate systems like 
 Schwarzschild
 coordinates and Eddington-Finkelstein coordinates and Kruskal-Szekeres
 coordinates give very different definitions of simultaneity)? Edgar 
 isn't
 just claiming some approximate pragmatic truth about simultaneity, 
 he's
 claiming an absolute and exact truth about simultaneity in all
 circumstances, I was asking if he thinks this truth can be empirically
 determined to arbitrary precision even in principle, and if so what
 empirical observations would be used.

 Jesse




 Brent

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Re: Indian physicist resolved Black Hole paradox much before Hawking

2014-02-06 Thread Chris de Morsella





 From: meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net
 


 Mitra's theory seems to contradict Penrose's proof that any GR solution with 
 a closed event horizon must contain a singularity.  Before Penrose's theorem 
 there was a widespread opinion among physicists that something like Mitra's 
 picture must be true and that the singularities in solutions like 
 Schwarzschild's were just due to the idealized perfect spherical symmetry or 
 the idealized equations of state.  But Penrose bypassed all that and made a 
 purely topological argument.  So Hawking isn't saying that Mitra is right, 
 Hawking is rejecting Penrose's theorem on the grounds that it doesn't 
 consider quantum effects.

Thanks for the clarification about the subtle distinction between the reasoning 
in Hawking's recent short paper and Mitra's earlier theory.   
Brent


On 2/6/2014 12:45 PM, Chris de Morsella wrote:

Giving credit where credit is due. 


http://twocircles.net/2014feb05/indian_physicist_resolved_black_hole_paradox_much_hawking.html
 
 
Indian physicist resolved Black Hole paradox much before Hawking 
 
By K.S.Jayaraman, IANS,
 
Bangalore : A new paper released late last month in which famed British 
physicist Stephen Hawking contradicts his own theory and says that Black Holes 
- in the real sense - do not actually exist has startled the world science 
community.
 
But Abhas Mitra, a theoretical physicist at the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre 
(BARC) in Mumbai, is not at all surprised. I said more than a decade ago that 
the Black Hole solutions found in Einstein's General Theory of Relativity 
actually correspond to zero mass and are never formed. This implies that the 
so-called Black Holes candidates must be Grey Holes or quasi-Black Holes, 
Mitra told IANS. Hawking is saying the same thing now.
 
Mitra's papers, published in peer reviewed journals since 2000 - that still 
remain unchallenged - maintain that there can be objects in the universe that 
are quasi-static or eternally collapsing but not exactly Black Holes. This 
work was largely ignored by mainstream physicists as well as the media while 
Hawking's recent two-page online paper saying exactly the same thing has 
become hot international news, Mitra noted.
 
He said this happened even though several American astrophysicists verified 
his prediction that such quasi-Black Holes must have strong magnetic fields 
unlike the real Black Holes, adding that even Harvard University issued a 
press release to this effect in 2006.
 
A Black Hole, according to its proponents, results from gravitational collapse 
of a massive star after it runs out of fuel for nuclear fusion. A Black Hole 
is all vacuum except for an infinitely dense central point called 
singularity, Mitra said.
 
As the theory goes, a Black Hole is surrounded by an imaginary boundary called 
Event Horizon that shuts everything within, allowing nothing - not even 
light - to escape. An object crossing the Event Horizon gets forever trapped 
and crushed at the singularity, destroying all the information about the 
object as well. This directly conflicts with the laws of quantum physics that 
say information can never be completely wiped out. This is the Black Hole 
information loss paradox.
 
The Black Holes also pose a Firewall Paradox which arises from the claim 
that Event Horizon, under the quantum theory, must actually be transformed 
into a highly energetic region, or firewall, that would burn any approaching 
object to a crisp. Although the firewall obeyed quantum rules, it flouted 
Einstein's General Theory of Relativity, Mitra said.
 
Hawking's latest paper attempts to resolve the Firewall Paradox by proposing 
that gravitational collapse produces only an Apparent Horizon but not an Event 
Horizon that is the hallmark of a true Black Hole. He said the absence of 
Event Horizons means there are no Black Holes in the sense they are usually 
visualized. Mitra said he has shown before that there can be no Event Horizon 
by using the classical theory without invoking uncertain quantum physics as 
Hawking has done.
 
In fact, in a series of peer reviewed papers, Mitra has shown that no true 
Black Holes can ever form. The so-called Black Holes observed by astronomers 
are actually radiation pressure supported Eternally Collapsing Objects (ECOs). 
These balls of fire are so hot that even neutrons and protons melt there and 
whose outward radiation pressure balances the inward pull of gravity to arrest 
a catastrophic collapse before any Black Hole or 'singularity' would actually 
form.
 
Incidentally, our Sun is also a ball of fire hot enough to melt atoms, Mitra 
noted.
 
Thus, the realization that there can be no true Black Holes and the so-called 
Black Holes are actually ECOs resolve both the Information and Firewall 
paradoxes, Mitra said.
 
Hawking has now arrived at the same conclusion from tentative arguments while 
our results are based on exact calculations and were published 

Re: Block Universes

2014-02-06 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Quentin,

It IS a problem for reality and for relativity, because it exposes a hidden 
assumption of relativity without which relativity doesn't make sense, that 
there must be a common present moment in which relativistic results occur 
for those results to make sense and be meaningful, for the comparison of 
different t values to occur.

But it's clear from your comments you are here to flame rather than to 
understand...

Edgar

On Thursday, February 6, 2014 6:45:56 PM UTC-5, Quentin Anciaux wrote:




 2014-02-06 Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.net javascript::

 Quentin,

 For starters, as I've said on numerous occasions,  it solves the question 
 of how observers can have different relativistic clock times in the same 
 present moment.


 It doesn't solve anything, because it's not a problem for relativity... I 
 agree that solving a non-existent problem is easy but useless.
  


 Edgar



 On Thursday, February 6, 2014 1:33:02 PM UTC-5, Quentin Anciaux wrote:

 I've read all of them, there is nothing about what it is supposed to 
 solve...

 Please state it here and now... do not refer to inexistant post.


 2014-02-06 Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.net:

 Quentin,

 Please refer to my extensive posts to Jesse for that...

 Edgar


 On Thursday, February 6, 2014 1:21:13 PM UTC-5, Quentin Anciaux wrote:

 So, what is it ? What is it supposed to solve in the first place ?
  

 2014-02-06 Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.net:

 Quentin,

 But it's NOT the case...

 Edgar



 On Thursday, February 6, 2014 10:52:58 AM UTC-5, Quentin Anciaux 
 wrote:




 2014-02-06 Jesse Mazer laser...@gmail.com:



 On Thu, Feb 6, 2014 at 9:01 AM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.netwrote:

 But recall that p-time is not a directly measurable quantity so 
 arbitrary precision does not apply. You still haven't grasped the 
 concept 
 correctly. P-time has no direct measure, because the present moment 
 is that 
 in which all measures, including those of clock time, are computed. 


 I don't recall you ever spelling that out in conversation with me, 
 thanks for clarifying. In the past people had asked you about how to 
 determine p-time and you had said things like we should be able to 
 compute 
 p-time from Omega, the curvature of the universe (in the post at 
 http://www.mail-archive.com/everything-list@googlegroups.
 com/msg47450.html ). So if you now say that determining which 
 events are simultaneous in p-time is fundamentally impossible for any 
 being 
 within the universe, that answers what I was wondering about in 
 question #1.


 If that's the case... what good is it to entertain such p-time... 
 it's useless. Predict nothing, cannot be measured. What is p-time 
 supposed 
 to solve ?
  

  
 Jesse

  


 Nevertheless the fact of existence of all observers and thus of 
 everything in the present moment is a direct empirical observation. 
 Just 
 like consciousness it is not subject to measure, but that doesn't 
 mean it 
 doesn't exist.

 Edgar

 On Thursday, February 6, 2014 12:47:05 AM UTC-5, jessem wrote:

  

 On Wed, Feb 5, 2014 at 7:38 PM, meekerdb meek...@verizon.netwrote:

  On 2/5/2014 9:31 AM, Jesse Mazer wrote:
  
 --question 1 dealt with the question of how YOU would define 
 p-time simultaneity in a cosmological model where there's no way to 
 slice 
 the 4D spacetime into a series of 3D surfaces such that the density 
 of 
 matter is perfectly uniform on each slice (and that uniform can be 
 characterized by the parameter Omega), unlike in the simple FLRW 
 model 
 where matter is assumed to be distributed in this perfectly uniform 
 way.


 I don't see that perfect uniformity is necessary.  We have 
 calculated our epoch relative to the CMB as 13.8By.  I assume any 
 other 
 scientific species in the universe could do the same and so say 
 whether 
 they were 'at the same time' as measured by expansion of the 
 cosmos.  I 
 don't see how the existence of galaxies and galaxy clusters 
 precludes this 
 kind of measurement.



 Using the CMB may give an approximate answer, but would you argue 
 it could distinguish between different simultaneity definitions that 
 agree 
 approximately when averaged over large scales, but disagree somewhat 
 about 
 the details of simultaneity in highly curved regions? For example, 
 could 
 the CMB be used to define a unique definition of simultaneity in the 
 neighborhood of a black hole (where coordinate systems like 
 Schwarzschild 
 coordinates and Eddington-Finkelstein coordinates and 
 Kruskal-Szekeres 
 coordinates give very different definitions of simultaneity)? Edgar 
 isn't 
 just claiming some approximate pragmatic truth about simultaneity, 
 he's 
 claiming an absolute and exact truth about simultaneity in all 
 circumstances, I was asking if he thinks this truth can be 
 empirically 
 determined to arbitrary precision even in principle, and if so what 
 empirical observations would be used. 

 Jesse

  

  
 Brent
  
 -- 
 You received this message because you are 

Re: Block Universes

2014-02-06 Thread Quentin Anciaux
2014-02-07 Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net:

 Quentin,

 It IS a problem for reality and for relativity, because it exposes a
 hidden assumption of relativity without which relativity doesn't make sense


No, the only problem with relativity, is that you absolutely have no idea
how it works, what you state is not a problem for relativity but only for
you, it's obvious that the day the universe will burn to its frozen death,
you will understand... for the nth time.

Quentin


 , that there must be a common present moment in which relativistic results
 occur for those results to make sense and be meaningful, for the comparison
 of different t values to occur.

 But it's clear from your comments you are here to flame rather than to
 understand...

 Edgar

 On Thursday, February 6, 2014 6:45:56 PM UTC-5, Quentin Anciaux wrote:




 2014-02-06 Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.net:

 Quentin,

 For starters, as I've said on numerous occasions,  it solves the
 question of how observers can have different relativistic clock times in
 the same present moment.


 It doesn't solve anything, because it's not a problem for relativity... I
 agree that solving a non-existent problem is easy but useless.



 Edgar



 On Thursday, February 6, 2014 1:33:02 PM UTC-5, Quentin Anciaux wrote:

 I've read all of them, there is nothing about what it is supposed to
 solve...

 Please state it here and now... do not refer to inexistant post.


 2014-02-06 Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.net:

 Quentin,

 Please refer to my extensive posts to Jesse for that...

 Edgar


 On Thursday, February 6, 2014 1:21:13 PM UTC-5, Quentin Anciaux wrote:

 So, what is it ? What is it supposed to solve in the first place ?


 2014-02-06 Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.net:

 Quentin,

 But it's NOT the case...

 Edgar



 On Thursday, February 6, 2014 10:52:58 AM UTC-5, Quentin Anciaux
 wrote:




 2014-02-06 Jesse Mazer laser...@gmail.com:



 On Thu, Feb 6, 2014 at 9:01 AM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.netwrote:

 But recall that p-time is not a directly measurable quantity so
 arbitrary precision does not apply. You still haven't grasped the 
 concept
 correctly. P-time has no direct measure, because the present moment 
 is that
 in which all measures, including those of clock time, are computed.


 I don't recall you ever spelling that out in conversation with me,
 thanks for clarifying. In the past people had asked you about how to
 determine p-time and you had said things like we should be able to 
 compute
 p-time from Omega, the curvature of the universe (in the post at
 http://www.mail-archive.com/everything-list@googlegroups.
 com/msg47450.html ). So if you now say that determining which
 events are simultaneous in p-time is fundamentally impossible for any 
 being
 within the universe, that answers what I was wondering about in 
 question #1.


 If that's the case... what good is it to entertain such p-time...
 it's useless. Predict nothing, cannot be measured. What is p-time 
 supposed
 to solve ?



 Jesse




 Nevertheless the fact of existence of all observers and thus of
 everything in the present moment is a direct empirical observation. 
 Just
 like consciousness it is not subject to measure, but that doesn't 
 mean it
 doesn't exist.

 Edgar

 On Thursday, February 6, 2014 12:47:05 AM UTC-5, jessem wrote:



 On Wed, Feb 5, 2014 at 7:38 PM, meekerdb meek...@verizon.netwrote:

  On 2/5/2014 9:31 AM, Jesse Mazer wrote:

 --question 1 dealt with the question of how YOU would define
 p-time simultaneity in a cosmological model where there's no way 
 to slice
 the 4D spacetime into a series of 3D surfaces such that the 
 density of
 matter is perfectly uniform on each slice (and that uniform can be
 characterized by the parameter Omega), unlike in the simple FLRW 
 model
 where matter is assumed to be distributed in this perfectly 
 uniform way.


 I don't see that perfect uniformity is necessary.  We have
 calculated our epoch relative to the CMB as 13.8By.  I assume any 
 other
 scientific species in the universe could do the same and so say 
 whether
 they were 'at the same time' as measured by expansion of the 
 cosmos.  I
 don't see how the existence of galaxies and galaxy clusters 
 precludes this
 kind of measurement.



 Using the CMB may give an approximate answer, but would you
 argue it could distinguish between different simultaneity 
 definitions that
 agree approximately when averaged over large scales, but disagree 
 somewhat
 about the details of simultaneity in highly curved regions? For 
 example,
 could the CMB be used to define a unique definition of simultaneity 
 in the
 neighborhood of a black hole (where coordinate systems like 
 Schwarzschild
 coordinates and Eddington-Finkelstein coordinates and 
 Kruskal-Szekeres
 coordinates give very different definitions of simultaneity)? Edgar 
 isn't
 just claiming some approximate pragmatic truth about simultaneity, 
 he's
 claiming an absolute and exact truth about simultaneity in 

Re: Real science versus interpretations of science

2014-02-06 Thread Russell Standish
On Thu, Feb 06, 2014 at 03:13:24PM -0800, Edgar L. Owen wrote:
 Liz and Cowboy,
 
 Yes, I guess so if your idea of science is discussing your favorite science 
 fiction movies!
 :-)
 
 Edgar
 

Let me be the first to say that I found the thread on Sci Fi movies to
be very useful - I'm always on the lookout for good movie suggestions,
and I find the vast bulk of SciFi movies to be very poor in general,
so getting recommendations for good ones (the one mentioned here that
I've already seen have all been excellent movies) is very useful to
add to my viewing list.

By the same token, the thread is strictly speaking, off topic. But you
are always welcome to ignore the whole thread.

-- 


Prof Russell Standish  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
Principal, High Performance Coders
Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au


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Re: Block Universes

2014-02-06 Thread Jesse Mazer
On Thu, Feb 6, 2014 at 6:05 PM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 Jesse,

 OK, here's another question to get to the crux.

 You claim the twins meet in the same point of spacetime.

 OK, if that's a real point in spacetime it MUST have a t-coordinate. What
 is the value of that t-coordinate?


In my example it was t=50. But it depends entirely on details like when you
set the coordinate clocks to 0, what coordinates the twins departed at, and
their respective velocities in this coordinate system.



 And what's the relation of that t-coordinate to the different clock time
 t-coordinates of the twins? What's the transform that converts the two
 different clock time t values to the SAME same point t value?


Why is there a need for one? If two different measuring tapes cross at a
point in space, with and the point where they cross is at the 30 cm mark on
one tape and the 40 cm mark on the other, and there's a Cartesian
coordinate grid on the surface under them which says this point has an
x-coordinate of 50, is there a need for a transformation that changes 30
and 40 to 50?



 I say there isn't any, that relativity can't supply one. And that this
 means that, while relativity can arbitrarily DEFINE a same moment in
 spacetime as you do, it can NOT explain or calculate it.

 Only my p-time theory does this, relativity doesn't


You're saying your p-time theory gives a *mathematical* transformation, or
just some sort of conceptual transformation? If mathematical, can you
give a specific numerical example showing how it works, and what the
transformation function is?

Jesse

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Re: Block Universes

2014-02-06 Thread Jesse Mazer
On Thu, Feb 6, 2014 at 6:40 PM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 Jesse,

 OK, what I don't understand in this clearer example near the end of your
 post is you say The coordinate time of an event *is* just clock time on
 the local coordinate clock that was at the same point in spacetime as the
 event.

 This clock, call it C, on the grid that was at the same point in spacetime
 as the meeting event (which takes place on earth) is also a clock on earth,
 at earth's location on the grid. Twin B's clock also stayed at that exact
 same x,y,z point on the coordinate grid during the trip, and there was no
 relative motion between B and C.

 So why does B's clock read 40 years and clock C, which you claim gives the
 t-value of the meeting event, read 50 years when they were both at the same
 location during the trip?


My scenario never specified that we were using a coordinate system where B
was at rest. But yes, if B was at rest next to clock C the whole time,
clock C would measure a coordinate time interval of 40 years between A
leaving Earth and A returning. That still doesn't necessarily mean that C
would actually read 40 years when A returns--it could be that clock C was
set to 0 10 years before A departed, for example. It is most common in twin
paradox analyses to use a coordinate system where the twins depart at a
coordinate time of 0, though.




 Aren't you mistaken here since clocks B and C are comoving throughout the
 duration of the trip and thus must remain synchronized?

 If that is true you seem to be saying that we must preferentially take the
 stay at home twin's clock time as the correct t-value of the same point in
 spacetime that the meeting occurs, the clock time of the observer that
 didn't move from the start to end point. Is that correct?

 If so, again it's just a definition, and a strange one at that, because no
 matter if the traveling twin resets his clock to that t-value you claim is
 the correct/natural? t value of the meeting event, his age still remains
 just 30.


I never said the t-value was correct/natural, it is just the coordinate
time in one particular coordinate system, which is no more correct/natural
than any other coordinate system.

Jesse

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Re: Indian physicist resolved Black Hole paradox much before Hawking

2014-02-06 Thread Chris de Morsella





 From: LizR lizj...@gmail.com
To: everything-list@googlegroups.com 
Sent: Thursday, February 6, 2014 2:34 PM
Subject: Re: Indian physicist resolved Black Hole paradox much before Hawking
 


On 7 February 2014 11:17, Chris de Morsella cdemorse...@yahoo.com wrote:

Perhaps, but also true that most ALS sufferers do not get such attention  
media adulation.

 Perhaps because they aren't world famous scientist? I'm not sure what you 
 expect here!

Which is what I was suggesting... namely that Hawkins got known first and 
foremost because of his work and not because of his ALS... though his ALS 
certainly makes him a compelling figure.

I appreciate Mitra feeling bitter about this, but at least it should get his 
result more public awareness. I do find it very interesting, more so than any 
squabbling about who was first. Looks like Mitra has done a far better job 
anyway so that's what I'm really interested in. (Maybe now there will be an 
article for dummies like me in scientific american...)


Also tbh I haven't really thought Hawking was doing much actual science for a 
long time, as an interested lay-person at least, despite him being called in on 
the odd well-publicised bet ... (plus his imaginary time idea seems to have 
dropped off the radar). He's good for the odd quote about the mind of God and 
fire in the equations...



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Re: Block Universes

2014-02-06 Thread LizR
I must say, Jesse, I admire your patience and forebearance.

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Re: Real science versus interpretations of science

2014-02-06 Thread LizR
On 7 February 2014 12:13, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 Liz and Cowboy,

 Yes, I guess so if your idea of science is discussing your favorite
 science fiction movies!
 :-)


I guess you're more inclined towards the fantasy genre.
:-)

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Re: Indian physicist resolved Black Hole paradox much before Hawking

2014-02-06 Thread LizR
On 7 February 2014 13:42, Chris de Morsella cdemorse...@yahoo.com wrote:

   --
  *From:* LizR lizj...@gmail.com
 *To:* everything-list@googlegroups.com
 *Sent:* Thursday, February 6, 2014 2:34 PM
 *Subject:* Re: Indian physicist resolved Black Hole paradox much before
 Hawking

 On 7 February 2014 11:17, Chris de Morsella cdemorse...@yahoo.com wrote:

 Perhaps, but also true that most ALS sufferers do not get such attention 
 media adulation.


  Perhaps because they aren't world famous scientist? I'm not sure what
 you expect here!

 Which is what I was suggesting... namely that Hawkins got known first and
 foremost because of his work and not because of his ALS... though his ALS
 certainly makes him a compelling figure.


Depends what you mean by well known. He becamse well known by the public
when he published A brief history of time - but obviously he was well
known amongst physicists for the singularity theorem with Penrose (iirc?)
and Hawking radiation.

(Of course he only became a rock star once he'd been portrayed by Benedict
Cumberbatch...)

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Re: Block Universes

2014-02-06 Thread Jesse Mazer
On Thu, Feb 6, 2014 at 6:46 PM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 Jesse,

 What's wrong with conscious experience? Every observation of science is
 ultimately a conscious experience.


Yes, ultimately, but the observations used in physical science used are
always of quantitative values that can be measured by some sort of
measuring-instrument.

Anyway, it's fine with me if you want to argue in favor of p-time using
qualitative aspects of conscious experience, and in fact I did address the
argument from conscious experience in the last two paragraphs of the post
at https://groups.google.com/d/msg/everything-list/jFX-wTm_E_Q/jUPOnqbP6hwJ--
I don't think you addressed that part. In any case, I'm trying to get
a
sense of whether you think there are multiple *independent* arguments in
favor of p-time, or whether any argument you could make for p-time would
depend crucially on pointing to qualitative aspects of conscious
experience. The exact nature of the conscious experience of change seems
pretty slippery and hard to pin down, so I would prefer to just agree to
disagree about what is proved by conscious experience and discuss other
less subjective arguments, if you do have any independent ones.



 The observation of a present moment we share when we are together in space
 is the most FUNDAMENTAL observation of all.

 It's much much more than an intuition. It's a directly observable FACT.

 As for operational definition, I explained in detail how the theory works
 on numerous occasions.


Giving an operational definition is not the same as a description of how
the theory works. Operational means that any terms are defined in terms of
some test procedure that anyone could carry out, even one who does not
agree from the start about your metaphysical assumptions. For example, my
operational definition of same point in spacetime didn't require any
assumptions about the ontology of spacetime, it was just things like
sending out a light signal and seeing if there was a measurable delay in
getting back the reflected signal, or yelling hey! and seeing if the
other person starts to react quasi-instantaneously.



 In fact you criticize me in your first paragraph for doing that too much!


Once again you repeat the annoying strawman that I am telling you not to
discuss your theory, when in fact I was expressing irritation that YOU
scolded ME for answering a direct question you asked about my ideas with an
on-topic answer. I guess you're not going to apologize for that, you think
it was entirely fair to scold me for an on-topic response to your own
question?

Jesse




 Edgar

 On Thursday, February 6, 2014 6:28:30 PM UTC-5, jessem wrote:



 On Thu, Feb 6, 2014 at 5:45 PM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.net wrote:

 Jesse,

 So we can only discuss your ideas and not mine?


 No, but it's pretty irritating when you ask me questions specifically
 about *my* (relativistic model), and then when I give you answers you
 suddenly change the subject and make scolding comments like Once again,
 for the nth time, you are making statements about CLOCK time simultaneity
 with which I agree. That has nothing to do with the same present moment of
 p-time. And now when I explain that I was just responding to your
 questions and give you quotes showing that you had been asking about my
 model, instead of apologizing for losing track of what we'd been talking
 about you get all pouty and pretend I'm saying we can only discuss my
 ideas. I just don't like being scolded for giving an on-topic response to
 some questions of yours, that's all.



 I suggest the way to progress is to discuss and compare both which is
 what I was/am doing...

 Yes, I'd like to understand your take on whether relativity can give a
 coherent account of what phrases like same point in spacetime  really
 mean physically. I think I understand that from your reflected light test.

 But my point remains that that just provides a limited definition of a
 local same point in spacetime. It does NOT explain WHY the twins meet in
 that same present moment. Rather it just defines that they do after the
 fact with the reflected light test.


 Like I said, it can also predict that this will happen in advance, by
 using an inertial coordinate system and the known equations of physics to
 predict both the path and clock readings of the twins and to model the
 light signals being sent out and reflected between them, and predicting
 what their clocks read at the point where the reflection time goes to zero.




 But it doesn't explain why and that is something relativity can't seem
 to calculate or explain.

 What relativity does here is admit there is something it can't explain
 or calculate (why the twins meet in a shared present moment)


 Can you give an operational definition of this shared present moment,
 one that goes beyond just the observation that the time between an action
 directed at the other gets an almost immediate response (whether we're
 talking about 

Re: Block Universes

2014-02-06 Thread Russell Standish
On Thu, Feb 06, 2014 at 07:59:53PM -0500, Jesse Mazer wrote:
 On Thu, Feb 6, 2014 at 6:46 PM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:
 
  Jesse,
 
  What's wrong with conscious experience? Every observation of science is
  ultimately a conscious experience.
 
 
 Yes, ultimately, but the observations used in physical science used are
 always of quantitative values that can be measured by some sort of
 measuring-instrument.
 
 Anyway, it's fine with me if you want to argue in favor of p-time using
 qualitative aspects of conscious experience, and in fact I did address the
 argument from conscious experience in the last two paragraphs of the post
 at https://groups.google.com/d/msg/everything-list/jFX-wTm_E_Q/jUPOnqbP6hwJ--
 I don't think you addressed that part. In any case, I'm trying to get
 a
 sense of whether you think there are multiple *independent* arguments in
 favor of p-time, or whether any argument you could make for p-time would
 depend crucially on pointing to qualitative aspects of conscious
 experience. The exact nature of the conscious experience of change seems
 pretty slippery and hard to pin down, so I would prefer to just agree to
 disagree about what is proved by conscious experience and discuss other
 less subjective arguments, if you do have any independent ones.
 

A subjective present moment is not a problem, indeed it is required
for my TIME postulate, although I would argue that the past light cone
is probably a more useful concept than a spacelike foliation. The
problem is with an intersubjective present moment, such as Edgar seems
to be promoting, which is not compatible with relativity.

Cheers
-- 


Prof Russell Standish  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
Principal, High Performance Coders
Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au


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Re: Modal Logic (Part 3: summary + 1 exercise)

2014-02-06 Thread LizR
On 7 February 2014 09:14, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


 On 06 Feb 2014, at 07:39, LizR wrote:

 On 6 February 2014 08:25, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:



 Which among the next symbolic expressions is the one being a well formed
 formula:

 ((p - q) - ((p (p V r)) - q))

 ))(p-)##à89- a - q)

 OK?


 I sure hope so.

 Well, I will pray a little bit.


 (to be sure the irst one might contain a typo, but I assure you there are
 no typo in the second one (and there is no cat walking on the keyboard).

 ***

 Then a set of worlds get alive when each proposition (p, q, r), in each
 world get some truth value, t, or f. I will say that the mutiverse is
 illuminated.

 And we can decide to put f and t is the propositional symbol for the
 boolean constant true and false.
 (meaning that p - f is a proposition, or well formed formula).

 In modal logic it is often simpler to use only the connector - and
 that if possible if you have the constant f.

 For example you can define ~p as an abbreviation for (p - f), as you
 should see by doing a truth table. OK?


 p - f is (~p V f), for which the truth table is indeed the same as ~p

 OK.


 (Can you define , V, with - and f in the same way? This is not
 an exercise, just a question!).


 I don't think I can define those *literally* with p, - and f if that's
 what you mean.


 That is what I mean, indeed.

 OK, having had a look at what you say below, let's have another go. Start
from p - q being equivalent to (~p V q)

That gives us ~p - q equiv (p V q) and from the above ~p is (p - f) so p
V q is (p - f) - q which I seem to remember is what you got. OK so far.

p  q --- well, p - q is ~(p  ~q), so ~(p - q) = (p  ~q) and ~(p - ~q)
= (p  q)

so ~(p - (q - f)) which I guess is ((p - ( q - f)) - f) = (p  q)

Does it?!?! Looking below, I see that it does. Wow.

 But that doesn't make sense, because  requires two arguments, so it would
 have to be something like ... well, p - q is (~p V q) and it's also ~(p 
 ~q), which contain V and  ... I'm not sure I know what you mean.


 Like for ~, to define  and V to a machine which knows only -
  and f.  You can use the ~, as you have alredy see that you can define
 it with - and f.

 I reason aloud. Please tell me if you understand.

 First we know that p - q is just ~p V q, OK?

 So the V looks already close to -. Except that instead of ~p V q
 (which is p - q) we want p V q.

 May be we can substitute just p by ~p: and p V q might be then ~p - q,

 Well, you can do the truth table of ~p - q, and see that it is the same
 as p V q.

 To finish it of course, we can eliminate the ~, and we have that p V q
 is entirely defined by (p - f) - q.

 OK?

 And the :

 Well, we already know a relationship between the  and the V, OK? The
 De Morgan relations.

 So, applying the de Morgan relation,  p  q is the same as ~(~p V ~q),
 (the same logically, not pragmatically, of course).

 That solves the problem.

 But we can verify, perhaps simplify. We can eliminate the V by the
 definition above (A V B = ~A - B),
 ~(~p V ~q) becomes ~(~~p - ~q), that is ~(p - ~q). Or, to really settle
 the things, and define  from - and f:
 p  q = ((p - (q - f)) - f).

 OK?


Apparently, yes.


 Each world, once illuminated (that is once each proposition letter has
 a value f or t) inherits of the semantics of classical proposition logic.

 This means that if p and q are true in some world alpha, then (p  q) is
 true in that world alpha, etc.
 in particular all tautologies, or propositional laws, is true in all
 illuminated multiverse, and this for all illuminations (that for all
 possible assignment of truth value to the world).

 OK?

 Question: If the multiverse is the set  {a, b}, how many illuminated
 multiverses can we get?


 I suppose 4, since we have a world with 2 propositions, and each can be t
 or f?


 Answer: there is three letters p, q, r, leading to eight valuations
 possible in a, and the same in b, making a total of 64 valuations, if I am
 not too much distracted. I go quick. This is just to test if you get the
 precise meanings.


 Oh, OK. So a and b are worlds, not ... sorry. I see.


 Good.


 So that is 2^3 x 2^3 because a has p,q,r = 3 values, all t or f, as does
 b. OK now I see what you meant.


 OK.



 Of course with the infinite alphabet {p, q, r, p1, q1, r1, p2, ... } we
 already have a continuum of multiverses.


 I can't quite see why it's a continuum. Each world has a countable
 infinity of letters, and the number of worlds is therefore 2 ^ countable
 infinity! Is that a continuum?


 Yes. We proved it, Liz.


Yes I had a sneaky suspicion we did. It seems familiar ... a bit.


 Take a the infinite propositional symbol letters {p, q, r, p1, q1, r1, p2,
 ... } . They are well ordered.  So a sequence of 1 and 0 (other common name
 for t and f) can be interpreted as being a valuation. The valuation are the
 infinite sequences of 1 and 0. Or the function from N to {0, 1}.

 If such a set of function was in 

Re: Eidetic memory and the comp hypothesis

2014-02-06 Thread Richard Ruquist
On Thu, Feb 6, 2014 at 4:44 PM, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 On 7 February 2014 02:01, Richard Ruquist yann...@gmail.com wrote:

 On Thu, Feb 6, 2014 at 2:36 AM, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 So he's saying the number of proteins you COULD make from around 60
 amino acids exceeds the Lloyd limit - not that there in fact is a Lloyd
 limit's worth of information stored in a given protein, brain, organism or
 even biosphere.


 No. Read again


 OK...


 It is of interest to determine just how complex a physical system has to
 be to encounter the Lloyd limit. For most purposes in physical science the
 limit is too weak to make a jot of difference. But in cases where the
 parameters of the system are combinatorically explosive, the limit can be
 significant. For example, proteins are made of strings of 20 different
 sorts of amino acids, and the combinatoric possibility space has more
 dimensions than the Lloyd limit of 10^120 when the number of amino acids
 is greater than about 60 (Davies, 2004).


 That still seems to be saying what I just said. The dimensions in
 possibility space is surely equivalent to the number of different proteins
 you could make?

NO WAY


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Re: Eidetic memory and the comp hypothesis

2014-02-06 Thread LizR
On 7 February 2014 15:47, Richard Ruquist yann...@gmail.com wrote:

 He wrote one paragraph on the Lloyd limit and concluded These sorts of
 arguments are at best suggestive. In fact the entire paper was about
 quantum effects in biology. He even suggests replacing bits by qubits. No
 mention of 60 amino acids is about the size of the smallest functional
 protein and so on. I agree that he is talking about the number of
 different protein configurations that may be made and when that number
 exceeds the Lloyd limit, strong emergence may result in some such proteins
 actually being made. But that seems very ad hoc to me now- something you
 seem to have realized immediately.
 My apologies, Richard

 OK. Sorry if I was a bit sharp.

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Re: Eidetic memory and the comp hypothesis

2014-02-06 Thread Richard Ruquist
OK, I concede. I read Davies 2004 for a fuller explanation,



On Thu, Feb 6, 2014 at 8:38 PM, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 On 7 February 2014 14:20, Richard Ruquist yann...@gmail.com wrote:

 On Thu, Feb 6, 2014 at 4:44 PM, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 On 7 February 2014 02:01, Richard Ruquist yann...@gmail.com wrote:

 On Thu, Feb 6, 2014 at 2:36 AM, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 So he's saying the number of proteins you COULD make from around 60
 amino acids exceeds the Lloyd limit - not that there in fact is a Lloyd
 limit's worth of information stored in a given protein, brain, organism or
 even biosphere.


 No. Read again


 OK...


 It is of interest to determine just how complex a physical system has
 to be to encounter the Lloyd limit. For most purposes in physical science
 the limit is too weak to make a jot of difference. But in cases where the
 parameters of the system are combinatorically explosive, the limit can be
 significant. For example, proteins are made of strings of 20 different
 sorts of amino acids, and the combinatoric possibility space has more
 dimensions than the Lloyd limit of 10^120 when the number of amino
 acids is greater than about 60 (Davies, 2004).


 That still seems to be saying what I just said. The dimensions in
 possibility space is surely equivalent to the number of different proteins
 you could make?



  NO WAY


 Go on then, what is it saying? Please give a little more explanation, if
 you keep on just saying no I will have to assume you don't actually have
 anything of interest to say.


OK, I concede. I read Davies 2004 for a fuller explanation, and I found
nothing relevant to his remarks that are under discussion.
He wrote one paragraph on the Lloyd limit and concluded These sorts of
arguments are at best suggestive. In fact the entire paper was about
quantum effects in biology. He even suggests replacing bits by qubits. No
mention of 60 amino acids is about the size of the smallest functional
protein and so on. I agree that he is talking about the number of
different protein configurations that may be made and when that number
exceeds the Lloyd limit, strong emergence may result in some such proteins
actually being made. But that seems very ad hoc to me now- something you
seem to have realized immediately.
My apologies, Richard







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Upon reflection

2014-02-06 Thread LizR
Here's a problem that occurred to me recently - nothing profound, but for
some reason googling doesn't seem to have given me a sensible answer.

Suppose I have a large cylinder, with the inside surface mirrored, and I
stand inside it - what do I see?

I suspect I see a long thin version of myself, but if I move so my eye is
at the exact centre I'm guessing I see a huge eyeball all over the inside!
Or do I?

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Re: Upon reflection

2014-02-06 Thread meekerdb

On 2/6/2014 6:53 PM, LizR wrote:
Here's a problem that occurred to me recently - nothing profound, but for some reason 
googling doesn't seem to have given me a sensible answer.


Suppose I have a large cylinder, with the inside surface mirrored, and I stand inside it 
- what do I see?


I suspect I see a long thin version of myself,


No, a wide fat version.

but if I move so my eye is at the exact centre I'm guessing I see a huge eyeball all 
over the inside! Or do I?


You're eyeball image can't be taller than you eyeball.

Are you thinking of having an MRI?

Brent

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Re: Upon reflection

2014-02-06 Thread LizR
On 7 February 2014 16:48, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


 Are you thinking of having an MRI?

 I've had one, about 18 months ago. It was the most frightening experiences
of a week in hospital that included having my gall bladder removed. But I
didn't get to see the inside of the cylinder (except for the odd glimpse)
because I had to keep my eyes shut.

This was just curiosity, plus the fact that a similar situation occurs in a
story I'm writing.

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Re: Eidetic memory and the comp hypothesis

2014-02-06 Thread LizR
On 7 February 2014 14:20, Richard Ruquist yann...@gmail.com wrote:

 On Thu, Feb 6, 2014 at 4:44 PM, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 On 7 February 2014 02:01, Richard Ruquist yann...@gmail.com wrote:

 On Thu, Feb 6, 2014 at 2:36 AM, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 So he's saying the number of proteins you COULD make from around 60
 amino acids exceeds the Lloyd limit - not that there in fact is a Lloyd
 limit's worth of information stored in a given protein, brain, organism or
 even biosphere.


 No. Read again


 OK...


 It is of interest to determine just how complex a physical system has to
 be to encounter the Lloyd limit. For most purposes in physical science the
 limit is too weak to make a jot of difference. But in cases where the
 parameters of the system are combinatorically explosive, the limit can be
 significant. For example, proteins are made of strings of 20 different
 sorts of amino acids, and the combinatoric possibility space has more
 dimensions than the Lloyd limit of 10^120 when the number of amino
 acids is greater than about 60 (Davies, 2004).


 That still seems to be saying what I just said. The dimensions in
 possibility space is surely equivalent to the number of different proteins
 you could make?



 NO WAY


 Go on then, what is it saying? Please give a little more explanation, if
you keep on just saying no I will have to assume you don't actually have
anything of interest to say.

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Re: Upon reflection

2014-02-06 Thread LizR
No, I get fatter, don't I? Like this guy, who (I think) is looking in a
concave mirror.

[image: Inline images 1]


On 7 February 2014 15:53, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 Here's a problem that occurred to me recently - nothing profound, but for
 some reason googling doesn't seem to have given me a sensible answer.

 Suppose I have a large cylinder, with the inside surface mirrored, and I
 stand inside it - what do I see?

 I suspect I see a long thin version of myself, but if I move so my eye is
 at the exact centre I'm guessing I see a huge eyeball all over the inside!
 Or do I?



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