Hi,

I have recently posted this question to the BioStar forum (
http://biostar.stackexchange.com/questions/8476/why-is-mass-accuracy-of-mass-spectrometers-typically-expressed-in-ppm),
but perhaps this group is more suitable.

My first thought is that since mass (or rather *m/z*) is the thing being
measured, accuracy should be measured in absolute units of *m/z*, i.e.
thompsons (*Th*).

However, in practice, the relative unit *ppm* seems to be used instead. I
find this confusing, since *ppm* will mean different things at different *
m/z* values.

e.g. (taken from
http://courses.chem.indiana.edu/c613/documents/AccurateMassSpectrometryLablecture.ppt
)

   - 5 ppm @ m/z 300 = ±0.0015 Th
   - 5 ppm @ m/z 3000 = ±0.015 Th

When describing the latest-and-greatest new machines, the literature seems
to stick with *ppm*, e.g. "Parts per million mass accuracy on an Orbitrap
mass spectometer via lock mass injection in a C-trap".

According to Gross in *Mass spectrometry: a textbook*: "As mass
spectrometers tend to have similar absolute mass accuracies over a
comparatively wide range, absolute mass accuracy represents a more
meaningful way of stating mass accuracies than the more trendy use of ppm."

So, can someone perhaps shed light on why *ppm* seems to be preferred?

Even statistical treatments tend to use *ppm* where I might naively expect
to see *Th*, e.g. Fig. 1 from the Mann lab paper [
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/17164402] graphs the distribution of mass
deviations in terms of *ppm*.

Thanks for your time.

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