As I said, it was a question I posed to my children ...
in effect to get them to question naïve simplifications.

Your response Stefan is neither naïve nor simplistic, if
I got an answer half-as-good as that I would have been
happy (I'd probably have been happy if I thought my
children's teachers' teachers could give an answer
half-as-good as that ;-)>

Regards,

Michael



> Michael Chapman wrote:
>
>>>Very much off topic is what follows.
>>>
>>>Just as a point of information, I think Hitler's election
>>>did not depend on fraud. I think he actually did have
>>>a lot of popular support at one point . Why is a complex
>>>question, but I believe he did, though of course
>>>he was not above fraud if fraud was needed.
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>Yes, when my children used to come home from 'ra-ra'
>>civics classes, I used to pose the question: "In 1945, of
>>Churchill, Hitler, Stalin and Truman, which were elected
>>as leader in a democratic election?"
>>
>>
>
> Hitler had 44% of the vote in 1933 (last election of Weimar Republic).
>
> How the Weimar Republic was "de facto" abolished latest in 1934 (after
> the death of Hindenburg, the President) is another story. (The Weimar
> Republic was never abolished in an official way. Hitler just got a kind
> of eternal "President/Chancellor". Of course this was not constitutional
> at all, but potential opposition had been crushed before.)
>
> Therfore, Hitler was certainly not elected to get into the function in
> which he put himelf. (There was not any  election after 1933. Media,
> justice and even religious organisations were taken over by the NSDAP
> party within a short time-frame, so what is even the point of the
> question above? Hitler and Stalin were dictators, the other two not. End
> of story...)
>
> You could say that the Democratic parties were too weak in 1933. It is
> untrue to pretend that Hitler was a kind of elected dictator.
>
> (The Communists were also very strong in 1933, but of course they were
> the first to be "taken out".)
>
> I mean: If Merkel would receive a 50% in the 2013 election, it still
> would be quite hard for her to "take over". Which means an absolute
> mayority is a potential election result, but hardly a legal base to
> crush other parties, abolish further elections etc.
>
> Books have been written why the Weimar Republic crushed, but it didn't
> happen because of the election results "per se".
>
> Best,
>
> Stefan
>
>
> P.S.: Don't want to start a huge political discussion. But if I read the
> "elected leader" question, I think this is  supposed to put democracy
> into question, but in a completely wrong way.
>
> - NSDAP reached never a 50% share of votes. (44% was the maximum vote
> share.)
>
> - Also  50% would not have been enough to abolish the Weimar
> Republic/Constitution in a legal  way.
>
> -  Hitler's "Machtergreifung" was not exactly a "constitutional
> process", and it was actually not supposed to be! Parliament members
> (left parties) were arrested and killed already in 1933/34, so it was a
> far-right revolution from the start. There were different militias all
> around, and the President didn't stop this. (Hindenburg was too old even
> to understand what happened. )
>
> Therefore, Hitler was not the "elected leader in 1945". No historian I
> know would support such a theory. Further, he and his fellows were
> declared enemies of the democracy, from the start. They acted in a way
> to get into charge, ruthless and certainly not caring at all about
> constitutional procedures. (Of course pretending to act in a
> constitutional way. And don't forget that Hitler had been jailed after a
> failed military plot a decade before... The second time the
> plot/revolution was still there, but far more hidden and slower.)
>
>
>
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