On 11 Oct 2012, at 12:27, Stefan Schreiber <st...@mail.telepac.pt> wrote:

> Hitler had 44% of the vote in 1933 (last election of Weimar Republic).
> 
> How the Weimar Republic was "de facto" abolished latest in 1934 (after the 
> death of Hindenburg, the President) is another story. (The Weimar Republic 
> was never abolished in an official way. Hitler just got a kind of eternal 
> "President/Chancellor". Of course this was not constitutional at all, but 
> potential opposition had been crushed before.)

That's the wrong election to look at. The 1933 election was after the 
"Machtergreiffung", i.e. the enabling act which was passed in January (election 
was March), and what preceded the elections was a massive and violent campaign 
of terror against the opposition, in particular against communists, socialists 
and any other strong opposition force.

The 1933 elections can thus not be considered "free elections".

The last election that resembled real democracy was November 1932, not March 
1933, and in that election Hitler got just about 33% of the vote.

By the November 1933 election Hitler had over 92% of the votes, with a few 
against and invalid votes. By November 1936 Hitler had over 98% of the votes, 
by April 1938 it was over 99% of the votes.

What any election past 1932 shows is simply the degree to which Hitler had 
control over the country and how efficient he was at suppressing opposition, 
not the degree of his actual popular vote. None of these past 1932 elections 
can be take as the true democratic expression of the German people.

It's also interesting to look at the psychological parallels of 9/11 and the 
Reichstagsbrand (burning down of the German parliament which was claimed to 
have been an act of communist terrorists), both of which allowed for 
unprecedented expansions in government power and a sharp reduction in civil 
liberties. It's equally interesting that both incidents remain suspected to 
have been false flag operations.

Ronald

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