I'm not an attorney, but I do have an opinion. Just because there "is no data from OSM in the dataset" does not mean they are (or aren't) derived. If OSM data were used in conjunction with its production, I think an argument can be made that those work are derived. The question would be: "can these data be created exactly as they are WITHOUT any OSM data (used as an over-layer, for example)?" If so, OK, then "don't do that" and create them that way and there isn't any question. But if you DO use that "OSM over-layer," then please: agree with common sense that those work are derived from OSM, even if they do not contain OSM data in them. They contain data "helped" by OSM data, so they are derived (I would argue).
SteveA California > On Nov 14, 2019, at 2:19 PM, Martin Koppenhoefer <dieterdre...@gmail.com> > wrote: > > I would believe it isn’t a derived work, as there is no data from > OpenStreetMap in the dataset. > > I agree with Mateusz, if they trained their ai with OpenStreetMap data, you > could take the position that every outcome of their blackbox is > OpenStreetMap-derived, but AFAIK it is a gray area. > > > Ciao Martin _______________________________________________ talk mailing list talk@openstreetmap.org https://lists.openstreetmap.org/listinfo/talk
