I don't know. I've expressed my opinion(s) on the matter, and believe the LWG should chime in with "an" (the?) answer.
SteveA California > On Nov 14, 2019, at 3:27 PM, Martin Koppenhoefer <dieterdre...@gmail.com> > wrote: > sent from a phone > >> On 15. Nov 2019, at 00:19, stevea <stevea...@softworkers.com> wrote: >> >> But the "ultimate test" of "can the new work be made without OSM data?" >> remains a good one, in my opinion, because then, the author can be told, >> "well, then, go do so, please, otherwise offer us attribution of some sort" >> (whether legally required, or not). > > > if you distribute a dataset and say: all roads but not those in > OpenStreetMap, isn’t this already attribution? The question is whether you’d > want to force them to distribute under ODbL rather than MIT (and maybe what > the downstream users have to attribute). > > Cheers Martin _______________________________________________ talk mailing list talk@openstreetmap.org https://lists.openstreetmap.org/listinfo/talk