Am Fr., 15. Nov. 2019 um 14:21 Uhr schrieb Christoph Hormann <o...@imagico.de >:
> On Friday 15 November 2019, Martin Koppenhoefer wrote: > > there isn't OSM data in their dataset. > > And neither is there is my ocean data set - the OSM data set used only > contains land masses, my resulting data set (D2 in Rory's terms) only > contains oceans. So no OSM data in it. > > I doubt this cheap trick would pass when contested in a trial. If you look at "features" you could argue like this, but everybody knows that a map of landmass and a map of ocean areas is just the same. It has the same geometry (or almost), it contains, directly or indirectly, the same coastline. Your dataset is constructed by transforming the OSM data. > > The question is not "addition or subtraction", but whether there > > is data from OSM in the data. > > No the question is if when based on the same D1 facebook generates a new > D2_a using *changed* OSM data the results are *different*. If that is > the case D2/D2_a is a derivative of OSM data. > > we seem to be running in circles, IMHO copyright doesn't protect the absence of certain data. > If the question is not "addition or subtraction" consider the following > scenario. You create a data set using some AI and big data process > of 'potential restaurants' world wide and create a set intersection > between those and the restuarants in OSM would the results be a > derivative of OSM data? yes, if you look at the intersection (data in both sets), it would be. If you took only what is not in OSM, I guess it wouldn't (no data from OSM contained). Cheers Martin
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