No one has really addressed my question as to why any classically conditioned 
stimulus could not be viewed as a  placebo (or nocebo). Humans are remarkable 
in a) the speed with which they can learn associations b) our ability to learn 
by observing others, and c) our ability to learn associations simply by being 
told that they exist. See, for example,



Behaviourally conditioned modification of T cell subset ratios in rats

A.J. Husband, M.G. King, and R. Brown



Abstract

Levamisole injection resulted in an elevation in the T helper:T suppressor 
(H:S) subset ratio in rats at 24 h after injection due to a selective 
depression in the cytotoxic/suppressor subset. This response was shown to be 
conditionable and could be reenlisted 14 days later by re-exposure to the 
conditioned stimulus. Rats were conditioned using a taste aversion paradigm by 
pairing levamisole injection with the novel taste of saccharin. Fourteen days 
later, after a second exposure to saccharin without levamisole injection, H:S 
ratios were elevated in the blood of these rats compared to control rats 
injected with levamisole but fed normal water or rats fed saccharin without 
levamisole injection.



And just to add another facet to the question: One of my favorite quotes is 
from Martin Gross' book "The Psychological Society: A Critical Analysis of 
Psychiatry, Psychotherapy, Psychoanalysis, and the Psychological Revolution" in 
which he refers to clinical psychologists as the "institutionalized dispensers 
of placebos."  I love to rattle my students' cages with that quote. But I then 
go on to demonstrate that placebo effects are real and powerful and that to be 
an expert in the administration of placebos is no trivial thing.



Edward I. Pollak, Ph.D.
Department of Psychology
West Chester University of Pennsylvania
http://home.comcast.net/~epollak/home.htm
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
Husband, father, grandfather, biopsychologist, & bluegrass fiddler...... in 
approximate order of importance.

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