DavidMs position seems quite similar to
Cal Thomas'--he has written on this issue recently, too.
FTR, Speaking of confusion on the matter
(resulting from the retention of certain biases?), in an 'exegetical' sense, it
appears that DavidM and CT both add the adjective 'homosexual', as in the
case below.
May we
inquire 'Why'?
On Mon, 24 Nov 2003 11:54:24 -0500 "David Miller"
<[EMAIL PROTECTED]> writes:
> Gary wrote: > > How do you two resolve this issue(?) >My position is that God has ordained marriage, not man, and >man has no authority to change
it. To enact homosexual
>marriage is to elevate man's
wisdom above God and to
>pervert the natural order than he
created...
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- [TruthTalk] Did Lot preach to Sodom? jandgtaylor1
- Re: [TruthTalk] Did Lot preach to Sodom? ttxpress
- Re: [TruthTalk] Did Lot preach to Sodom? ttxpress
- [TruthTalk] Did Lot preach to Sodom? jandgtaylor1
- Re: [TruthTalk] Did Lot preach to Sodom? ttxpress
- RE: [TruthTalk] Did Lot preach to Sodom? David Miller
- [TruthTalk] Did Lot preach to Sodom? jandgtaylor1
- [TruthTalk] Did Lot preach to Sodom? jandgtaylor1
- [TruthTalk] Did Lot preach to Sodom? ttxpress
- [TruthTalk] Did Lot preach to Sodom? jandgtaylor1