----- Original Message -----
Sent: Saturday, March 06, 2004 7:58
AM
Subject: [TruthTalk] Please hear me out
before ousting me.
Good Morning Bill:
After posting Job 19:23-27 you follow with: Is there any question here that the Kinsmen Redeemer-God of Job is
Jesus Christ, come in the flesh? I don't think so. And how is it that Job will
see God after his death, yet still in his own flesh? Job knew something about the Kinsmen Redeemer that you are unwilling to
admit. The Kinsmen Redeemer
was going to redeem Job's flesh by becoming like him in His own fallen
flesh......
***To begin with
Bill Job's fallen flesh (physical body) will not ever be redeemed and neither
will ours .. Do you realize that you are encasing God Himself in
sin when you say Jesus' flesh was fallen? Makes no difference whether you
refer to the physical or soulish part of him. He is
the same God who said by the prophet Isaiah that sin causes a
separation between God and mankind so that he hides his face and will not hear
(Isaiah 59:2). So to start with you have him denying his own
Word. (In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God and the
Word WAS God); this Word became flesh and dwelt among
us (John1:1) Vs.10 "He was in the world, and
the world was made by him, and the world knew him not."... has
anything changed under the sun? Then you write (we see this in Luk. 22.41-44; Rom.
5.12ff; 8.3; I Cor. 15; II Cor. 5.14ff; Gal. 4.4; Phi. 2. 5-11; Heb. 2.9-18;
the list goes on). Why is this so difficult for you to see?
***Because it just isn't there; these
are the same scriptures we've been going over already - they speak of Jesus
coming in the likeness of men, in the likeness of sinful flesh, being made like his brethren. In Gk the word is #3667 homoioma which
is resemblance, made like to, likeness, shape,
similitude and in Heb the same word is used in Genesis 1:26 where the Godhead
say "Let us make man in our image, after our likeness" We all know that the first Adam was not God. He was the creature and
God the creator - Now 1 Corinthians 15:47 teaches us that the second Adam is
"the Lord from heaven" so why do you insist that the second Adam must be
fallen flesh and the same as the creature?
It is impossible to understand
spiritual concepts using natural reasoning Bill. I am not being cute or
smart - the apostle Paul taught that "we should use words that the Holy Ghost
teaches and compare spiritual things with spiritual (1 Corinthians 2:13); so
it may help to take a look
and see if when God is speaking of natural or spiritual
generation when he uses the word "seed" (because I keep hearing on TT that the reason Jesus had to have
sinful flesh going all the way back to the first Adam is because he was Mary's
seed and Mary is the one to whom the promise was made so this is why the RCC
was forced to invent the immaculate conception).
Romans 9:6-8 explains to us who the seed are "For
they are not all Israel which are of Israel, neither because they are the seed
of Abraham are they all children, but in Isaac shall they seed be
called, that is, they which are the children of the flesh,
these are not the children of God, but the children of the
promise are counted for seed. Get that - ONLY the children of promise
are counted for seed. Then...
Galatians 3:16 expands... "Now to Abraham and his
seed (singular) were the promises made. He saith not. And to seeds, as of
many, but as of ONE. And to thy seed which is Christ. Then on to our
generation ...
Galatians 3:29: "And IF ye be Christ's THEN are ye
Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise"
So Bill - I belong to Christ so
according to God's Word I am Abraham's seed and an heir according to
the promise even though my DNA is certainly not Semitic.
Does any of what I have written above
make sense to you or am I speaking to myself?
Grace and Peace,
Judyt
