John wrote:
Torah = Jesus is simply not scriptural.   We know this because
there are NO scriptures that make this equation.

The Scriptures do say:

"The law of the LORD is perfect, converting the soul: the testimony of the LORD is sure, making wise the simple."
(Psalms 19:7)


This passage can also be translated as:
"The Torah of Yaweh is perfect, converting the soul."

Considering this passage, do you see anything of Christ in Torah? If Torah is perfect and converts the soul, wouldn't that mean that it is Christ in Torah that is doing that? Do you understand what I am trying to say?

Peace be with you.
David Miller.


---------- "Let your speech be always with grace, seasoned with salt, that you may know how you ought to answer every man." (Colossians 4:6) http://www.InnGlory.org

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