Perry, the issue of "sinless" perfection or sinless maturity is not resolved with Strong's definition of the Greek word. In exegetical studies, there is much more to the discovery of "definition" (in a given passage) than the mere defining of a word. In this case, I believe that semantical considerations are given qualification as they stand in the light of syntax. In your personal studies, you might consider the effect of "............. as your Heavenly Father is ........... " and the grammatical influence it might have on the gk word translated "perfect" or "mature." Further, certain theological considerations are sure to rise from both considerations (semantical and that of syntax) --------- what are those theological&nbs
p;considerations? For example: is there any comparison with God that would allows us to think something other than "sinless" or "without flaw?" If so , what and why? If not, ditto (?)
JD
-----Original Message-----
From: Charles Perry Locke <cpl2602@hotmail.com>
To: TruthTalk@mail.innglory.org
Sent: Fri, 11 Nov 2005 23:13:20 -0800
Subject: Re: [TruthTalk] Christ and the Law
Dave,
I understand that in 1611 "perfect" meant what "complete" means today.
So, what if you re-read that verse in today's language?
If you have a Strong's dictionary, read the definition for "perfect" (greek 5046). After reading it, do you still think this is a commandment to be "perfect" as in "sinless", or, "without flaw"? If so, why?
Perry
>DAVEH: If that is not possible, then why the commandment to do so? Mt >5:48........
>
>*Be ye therefore perfect, even as your Father which is in heaven is >perfect.*
>
>.........Doesn't it seem odd to have a commandment that is not obtainable?
----------
"Let your speech be always with grace, seasoned with salt, that you m ay know how you ought to answer every man." (Colossians 4:6) http://www.InnGlory.org
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I understand that in 1611 "perfect" meant what "complete" means today.
So, what if you re-read that verse in today's language?
If you have a Strong's dictionary, read the definition for "perfect" (greek 5046). After reading it, do you still think this is a commandment to be "perfect" as in "sinless", or, "without flaw"? If so, why?
Perry
>DAVEH: If that is not possible, then why the commandment to do so? Mt >5:48........
>
>*Be ye therefore perfect, even as your Father which is in heaven is >perfect.*
>
>.........Doesn't it seem odd to have a commandment that is not obtainable?
----------
"Let your speech be always with grace, seasoned with salt, that you m ay know how you ought to answer every man." (Colossians 4:6) http://www.InnGlory.org
If you do not want to receive posts from this list, send an email to [EMAIL PROTECTED] and you will be unsubscribed. If you have a friend who wants to join, tell him to send an e-mail to [EMAIL PROTECTED] and he will be subscribed.
