From: Dave <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
DAVEH: It seems to me that in whatever way God is perfect, or
complete.....that is what we have the potential to become, and have been
commanded to do so. Do you agree, Perry?
I do not believe that the KJV translators intended to use the word "perfect"
with a dual meaning. I believe it meant one thing then, and a different
thing now. We need to examine it in it's 17th century usage and context, not
2005 usage and context. I rely on Strong's and the Holy Spirit to help me
understand the words in a 17th century context.
Yes, I believe God would like for ALL of us to be sinless, but I also
believe that is a goal that we can strive for but not attain in this earthly
life (David will disagree since he is sinless, but I believe his sinlessness
stems more from his semantics than from his perfection. I am not saying his
semantics are wrong, I am saying I do not understand them. If I understood
them, then maybe I could say I sinless, too).
So, I do not believe that it is a commandment that we be sinless, flawless,
perfect in the sense into which you are trying to mold it, the 2005 sense. I
believe He is asking us to become complete in "various applications of
labor, growth, mental and moral character" (from Strong's 5046). That is not
the same as "sinless" in that we never ever ever commit any sin. I believe
that becoming complete is attainable. I believe that becoming perfect (in
the sense in which you are using it) is not.
Dave, do you believe that you are sinless? Are you fulfilling the
commandment in the way that you interpret "perfect"?
Perry
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"Let your speech be always with grace, seasoned with salt, that you may know how you
ought to answer every man." (Colossians 4:6) http://www.InnGlory.org
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