Re: [TruthTalk] corrector/revisor

[David Miller]

Hi Bill.  I appreciate you taking time to explain how you differentiate the middle from passive voice in this passage.  My point in asking you to review this is to remind us that it takes some interpretation on our part concerning context.  Syntax alone in this case does not give us the answer.  Therefore, we should be cautious about being dogmatic about how this passage should be interpreted.   Bill wrote: > I include "themselves" here because there is no other > object to receive the action of the verb: sanctification.    Sanctification / Sanctified is NOT the verb.  Maybe this is what is causing some of the confusion here.   The word "sanctified" is a participle, not a verb, which is formed from the verb sanctify.  In the passage, it is used as an adjective, not a verb.  The verb in the sentence is "are."    The participle "sanctified" and the past tense verb "sanctified" has the same syntax (they are spelled the same), but one functions as an adjective in the sentence while the other would function as a verb in some other hypothetical sentence.  It is this similar syntax that has apparently confused JD into thinking that the KJV is past tense, and perhaps you too. The KJV translates the passage in present tense, not past tense.  It does not indicate that our sanctification is complete or not complete.  It only indicates that we are sanctified.  Do we agree on this?   Peace be with you. David Miller.