Hi Bill. I appreciate you taking time to
explain how you differentiate the middle from passive voice in this
passage. My point in asking you to review this is to remind us that it
takes some interpretation on our part concerning context. Syntax
alone in this case does not give us the answer. Therefore, we should
be cautious about being dogmatic about how this passage should be
interpreted.
Bill wrote:
> I include "themselves" here because there
is no other
> object to receive the action of the verb:
sanctification.
Sanctification / Sanctified is NOT the verb.
Maybe this is what is causing some of the confusion here.
The word "sanctified" is a participle, not a verb,
which is formed from the verb sanctify. In the passage, it is used as an
adjective, not a verb. The verb in the sentence is "are."
The participle "sanctified" and the past tense verb
"sanctified" has the same syntax (they are spelled the same), but one functions
as an adjective in the sentence while the other would function as a verb in some
other hypothetical sentence. It is this similar syntax that has
apparently confused JD into thinking that the KJV is past tense, and
perhaps you too. The KJV translates the passage in present tense, not past
tense. It does not indicate that our sanctification is complete or not
complete. It only indicates that we are sanctified. Do we agree on
this?
Peace be with you.
David Miller. |
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