I really don't want to get drawn into this...  so I'll leave it at this
- as I've already mentioned, there is no way to classify statements as
"positive" or "negative".  That renders the whole discussion moot and
the claim "you can't prove a negative" meaningless. 

For the issue we were discussing, it's true that it's hard (actually,
impossible) to prove that "there is no audible effect from the 63.0 dB
mute tweak."  That fact does NOT constitute evidence that there is such
an effect - claiming so is committing another common logical fallacy
(the argument that lack of evidence to the contrary constitutes
evidence for something).  We can accumulate evidence either way, and in
the end the only proper procedure is to apply statistics to the
evidence, and all we could conclude is that one or the other is more
probable, or that we can reject the null hypothesis (which might be
either that there is or isn't an effect - up to you!) with some
specified confidence.

So far we have several people who have not heard anything.  That's
strong evidence there is no audible effect.  On the other hand those
who heard an effect they were expecting to hear (in a non-blind test)
really doesn't mean much, as we've seen over and over again.

In any case, can someone that hears this please just try it blind? 
Without that, we have strong evidence against it and no credible
evidence for it (I'm not doubting the honesty of those that hear it -
I'm sure they hear something - I'm just doubting that it has an
electronic/acoustic cause).


-- 
opaqueice
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