At 08:02 05-10-2002 -0400, Jon Gabriel wrote:

>>>sophistry
>>>
>>>n : a deliberately invalid argument displaying ingenuity in reasoning in 
>>>the hope of deceiving someone [syn: sophism]
>>>Source: WordNet ® 1.6, © 1997 Princeton University
>>>
>>>~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
>>>I'd say that's an accurate description of what he's doing.
>>
>>No, I am not using invalid arguments, nor am I trying to deceive anyone. 
>>I am trying to get the point across that a commonly used meaning of a 
>>word is not necessarily the (only) correct meaning.
>
>No, it's an apt description. You're deliberately defining a word in such a 
>way that said definition disagrees with eight dictionaries, an 
>encyclopedia and, incidentally, one that several native-English speakers 
>on the list also disagree with.

Wrong again. If I were doing that, I would be defining the word differently 
merely for the sake of disagreeing with your dictionaries and 
encyclopedias. But that is not what I am doing; I am trying to make you 
realise that words can also have meanings that differ from the most 
commonly used meaning, and not necessarily have to appear in a dictionary 
to be valid.

Do you believe that a certain meaning of a word is only valid if it is 
listed in a dictionary? If your answer is "yes", would then any dictionary 
suffice, or does it have to be the OED or the Merriam-Webster?


>Instead of trying to disprove the written authorities, you refuse to post 
>a shred of formal evidence that your position is accurate.

Well, you refuse to accept plain and simple logic, so if you even refuse 
*that*, I doubt you will accept anything else as evidence either. So what 
if I find a dictionary somewhere that defines "anti-Semitism" as "hatred of 
Semites"? You will almost certainly dismiss it because it disagrees with 
you and your dictionaries of choice.

Hell, I do not even need to look for a dictionary that gives my 
interpretation of the word -- William Goodall already found it:

> From Chambers 20th Century Dictionary (the /other/ main British Dictionary)
>
>"Anti-Semite a hater of Semites, esp. Jews, or of their influence. - adj.
>Anti-Semitic. - n.
>
>Semite n. a member of any of the peoples said (Gen. X) to be descended from
>Shem or speaking a Semitic language.
>
>Semitic languages : Assyrian, Aramaic, Hebrew, Phoenician, Arabic, Ethiopic
>etc."

Did you miss that post, or does a specific meaning have to be listed in the 
OED before you will accept it as valid?


>Therefore, your argument is invalid because it is based on your false 
>assumption (that the term 'antisemitic' refers to non-Jews).

The Chambers 20th Century Dictionary disagrees with you.

So, do you refuse to accept that a word can have a valid meaning that 
differs from the most commonly used meaning?


>If you were really trying 'to get the point across that a commonly used 
>meaning of a word is not necessarily the (only) correct meaning', you'd be 
>substantiating your claim with something more than your own opinion.

I substantiated it with plain and simple logical reasoning. William Goodall 
also substantiated it with the definition given in the Chambers 20th 
Century Dictionary (as quoted above).


>>But hey, I am flattered to see that you believe I am displaying 
>>ingenuity! Thanks for the compliment!   :-)
>
>I think you're being very creative.  You seem to be verbally dancing in 
>every direction but towards actually backing up your claims with formal 
>evidence. (Which, btw, *I* did a couple of days ago.)

Your "evidence" only shows that "Jew-hater" is the most commonly used 
meaning of the word "anti-Semite". It does not prove that the meaning 
"Semite-hater" is invalid.


Jeroen "And now, back to studying" van Baardwijk

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