No. It is the inverse. V' V = I On the other hand, V V' != I. We do know that norm(A V V' - A) is small.
On Mon, Sep 10, 2012 at 1:57 PM, Dmitriy Lyubimov <[email protected]> wrote: > Actually i think it is Penrose pseudo-inverse but for our purposes i > think it has the same effect as actual inverses... > > On Mon, Sep 10, 2012 at 1:35 PM, Pat Ferrel <[email protected]> wrote: > > > >> The inverse of V is trivial. It is orthonormal so the inverse is the > >> transpose. > >> > > > > D'oh, that brain cell has been dormant since Linear Algebra 101, which > is good. I thought it had died. >
