Yep that's my understanding too. V cannot have inverse since it is not square (in common case).
But since it is orthonormal, transpose produces a pseudoinverse which we can use just the same. On Mon, Sep 10, 2012 at 2:03 PM, Sean Owen <[email protected]> wrote: > Yes, doesn't the V V' != I bit mean it's not an inverse? I thought > only square matrices had a real inverse. This is a one-sided inverse, > which is (IIRC?) slightly stronger than being a pseudo-inverse. > > On Mon, Sep 10, 2012 at 9:59 PM, Ted Dunning <[email protected]> wrote: >> No. It is the inverse. V' V = I >> >> On the other hand, V V' != I. We do know that norm(A V V' - A) is small.
