On Mon, Sep 10, 2012 at 2:03 PM, Dmitriy Lyubimov <[email protected]> wrote: > On Mon, Sep 10, 2012 at 1:59 PM, Ted Dunning <[email protected]> wrote: >> No. It is the inverse. V' V = I > > Pseudoinverse has the same property afaik.
PS if V is orthonormal which it is
