Yes, doesn't the V V' != I bit mean it's not an inverse? I thought only square matrices had a real inverse. This is a one-sided inverse, which is (IIRC?) slightly stronger than being a pseudo-inverse.
On Mon, Sep 10, 2012 at 9:59 PM, Ted Dunning <[email protected]> wrote: > No. It is the inverse. V' V = I > > On the other hand, V V' != I. We do know that norm(A V V' - A) is small.
