On 23 September 2013 13:16, Russell Standish <li...@hpcoders.com.au> wrote:

> On Sun, Sep 22, 2013 at 12:29:30PM -0400, John Clark wrote:
> >
> > Bruno, if you have something new to say about this "proof" of yours then
> > say it, but don't pretend that 2 years of correspondence and hundreds of
> > posts in which I list things that I didn't understand about the first 3
> > steps didn't exist. If you can repair the blunders made in the first 3
> > steps then I'll read step 4, until then doing so would be ridiculous.
> >
> >   John K Clark
> >
>
> John, for the sake of the rest of us, it would be useful for you to
> summarise just what the problems were that you found with the first
> three steps.
>
> I have been on everything list since almost the beginning, and on FoR
> (on and off) most of the time of its existence, too. I don't ever
> remember a post from you along those lines, although I do recall
> several references to it by Bruno, so no doubt it exists, and I just
> missed it. I'm sceptical of the "hundreds of posts" claim, though.
>
> For me, my stopping point is step 8. I do mean to summarise the
> intense discussion we had earlier this year on this topic, but that
> will require an uninterrupted period of a day or two, just to pull it all
> into a comprehensible document.
>
> I'm just now reading a reading a very long paper (more of a short
> book, actually) by Scott Aaronson, on the subject of free will, which
> is one of those rare works in that topic that is not
> gibberish. Suffice it to say, that if he is ultimately convincing, he
> would get me to stop at step 0 (ie COMP is false), but more on that
> later when I finish it.
>
> I am still reading this, but I am a little disappointed that as far as I
can see he hasn't mentioned Huw Price and John Bell's alternative
formulation of Bell's Inequality, namely that it can be explained using
microscopic time-symmetry. (This is despite mentioning Huw Price in the
acknowledgements.) Maybe I will come across a mention somewhere as I
continue, but I've been reading the section on Bell's Inequality and it
doesn't seem that this potentially highly fruitful explanation - all the
more so in that it doesn't require any new physics or even any new
interpretations of existing physics - doesn't merit a mention, which is a
shame because without taking account of that potential explanation, any
subsequent reasoning that relies on Bell's Inequality is potentially flawed.

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