On 5/3/2017 9:47 AM, David Nyman wrote:


On 2 May 2017 11:18 p.m., "Brent Meeker" <meeke...@verizon.net <mailto:meeke...@verizon.net>> wrote:



    On 5/2/2017 2:29 PM, David Nyman wrote:


    On 2 May 2017 9:57 p.m., "Brent Meeker" <meeke...@verizon.net
    <mailto:meeke...@verizon.net>> wrote:



        On 5/2/2017 1:09 PM, David Nyman wrote:


        On 2 May 2017 7:21 p.m., "Brent Meeker"
        <meeke...@verizon.net <mailto:meeke...@verizon.net>> wrote:



            On 5/2/2017 1:01 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
            Your answer seems to be that physics can be an
            illusion of digital thought, therefore primary physics
            is otiose.  But thought can't be a consequence of
            physics because....well you just don't see how it
            could be.

            Not at all. It cannot be because you need to give a
            role to the primary matter which is not emulable by the
            UD, nor FPI-recoverable.

            The obvious "role" is that some things exist and some
            don't.  I don't know anyone who calls this "primary
            matter", but it's what is not UD emulable.


        But what are your grounds for discriminating which things
        exist and which don't?

        Empiricism.


    That's a slogan not an explanation.

    That's right - you asked for grounds.


I think you could be more helpful than this.






        If anything, it strikes me that the history of human enquiry
        is rather conducive to the view that whatever limits we try
        to impose on "what exists" are in all likelihood destined
        soon to be surpassed.

        Actually it has been the reverse. Relativity places a limit
        on speed, quantum mechanics places a limit on measurements,
        Goedel found a limit on proofs.  Laplace was the last
        physicist who thought we could predict everything.  We
        haven't been the center of the universe for a long time.


    Very selective. What about the string landscape, eternal
    inflation or for that matter the CUH? Maybe you'll say that these
    are as yet unproven hypotheses, but are you willing to say in
    principle​ they're barking up the wrong tree?

    Except for eternal inflation, they aren't even developed enough to
    be hypotheses.  I'm willing to bet that they will imply limits on
    what exists.  Even CUH does that, it implies real numbers and
    theories that assume them don't exist.


Sure, but my point is that all these ideas lead to a broader ontology than you seemed to be suggesting: i.e the theoretical recipe for what exists and what doesn't extends beyond the physics we observe locally. But even comp doesn't claim that *everything* exists. In fact its ontology is extremely restrictive.






        In any case, I still don't see that you've made a convincing
        argument for your "groundless" circular explanations.

        It's not an argument - it's an observation that that's the
        way explanations work.


    Not all explanations. And in particular not ontological ones.

    You mean the fundamental elements of a theory - whose existence
    doesn't have an explanation.  My idea of an explanation is one
    that brings understanding - not just stops explaining.


So is mine. So is Bruno's. What's your point?

An explanation that reaches understanding must end with an ontology that is already understood. Bruno accepts this. He thinks we understand Peano arithmetic. I think we only understand it because we refer it to experience with objects. But the broader point is that you can't just pick some theory with an ontology and say this theory explains things. The explanation is no good unless you already understand the theory's ontology. So explanations of different things bottom out on different ontologies for different people. This is why supernatural agents were popular explanations up until a few hundred years ago; agents are intuitively understood by people because, as social animals, evolution provided us with intuitions about other people. So it was satisfying to explain a storm as the cloud-god was angry. Now, some physicists would say it is explained by the Navier-Stokes equation - but that wouldn't really be right either. In fact NOAA explains it with some simplified N-S plus some heuristics.







        For example, based on your remarks above, you implicitly
        exclude "non physical" computations from your ontology (not
        forgetting what you said about ontology being theory
        dependent).

        Not at all.  I've never tried to make my "virtuous circle of
        explanation" exhaustive.  I generally include "mathematics"
        in it, but just as indicator for all kinds of abstract,
        symbolic based systems.


        A theory explicitly based on a computational ontology
        includes both physical and non physical. Of course you could
        go on to say that a physical computer could compute anything
        computable; but in that case we find ourselves at step 7 of
        the UDA and the putative physical machine then takes on the
        aspect of Bruno's invisible horses. Unless you want to say
        that the comp derivation of physics is thereby merely
        contingently impossible.

        My reservation about that argument is Bruno argues as if all
        the UD has to do is reach some state and it will have
        instantiated his (or someone's) consciousness.  But then I
        ask myself, "Consciousness of what?"  He thinks the external
        world is a kind of shared illusion of an equivalence class of
        "consciousness" states.  This is like the Boltzmann brain
        paradox without the solipism.  The reasonable way I can see
        such an equivalence class having a non-zero measure is if the
        physics is computed - not just the conscious perceptions of
        physics. Then the physics and consciousness are not different
        ontologically, they are just different ways of organizing the
        states (like Bertrand Russell's neutral monism).


    Is this really different from what comp implies? Surely the
    computation of the physics and its appearance are indeed two
    different views of the same thing - 3p and 1p plural? As we
    appeared to have agreed​ earlier, at the point where physical
    computation and the substantive perception (aka reality) with
    which it is entangled emerge in tandem, virtuous explanatory
    equilibrium has been attained. But the difference in views is the
    key. The former (aka 3p or in my parlance the view from nowhere)
    is the ontology and the latter the epistemology it implies.

    But so far there is nothing in Bruno's theory that makes them "the
    same thing"  every 1p thread of experience could be unrelated to
    every other - there would be no intersubjective agreement (or it
    would be of measure zero).  I think this is what he calls "the
    white rabbit" problem.



        But this doesn't answer my empirical tequila test.  Bruno
        replied that the (physical) tequila just interfered with the
        (physical) perception.  But in that case the tequila would
        have no affect on mathematical reasoning - but it does.


    You lost me.

    Have a few shots and then find the square root of 69696 in your
    head.   According to Bruno our physical being is only a way of
    interacting with other physical things (like tequila), but for
    knowledge and beliefs about numbers the physical is otiose.


Nonsense. You appear not to grasp the point that if comp is correct then the computational mechanisms dominating our experience (including our experience of mathematics) must those of the physics we typically observe.

Depends on what you mean by comp. You seem to engage in the same equivocation as Bruno. On the one hand it means saying "yes" to the doctor. On the other hand it means accepting his whole argument from that purportedly proving that physics is otiose. So then the argument refers to itself and says if physics is otiose then the physics we observe must be that predicted by his theory. So which "comp is correct" do you refer to?

Hence mathematical intuition or inference must be inextricably entangled with its local physics (as neurocognition) else comp is false. I think you systematically confuse Bruno's interview with the machine with an unattained fully fledged theory appropriate to creatures as psychologically complex as ourselves.

No. I don't accept his theory because it reduces to "If this theory is correct then it must explain what we observe." To be "fully fledged" one needs to show that it actually does explain what we observe, i.e. that tequila interferes with mathematical reasoning. He passes this off as just solving "the white rabbit" problem, as though it were a minor point; but without solving that it's a theory that can explain anything, and hence fails to explain at all. I'm not saying solving the white rabbit problem is impossible - maybe it can be. Bruno's other claim is that his theory models the relation of conscious thought and physics. But this also seems dubious. It models a very idealized consciousness of an omniscient mathematician who knows everything provable. That's not much like any consciousness I've ever had - even after a whole bottle of tequila.

Brent

At this stage what is demanded is that the toy model explicate otherwise inexplicable features of its putatively vastly more developed but (by assumption) analogous counterpart. And of course that it not lead, even at such an early stage, to brute inconsistencies.

David



    Brent
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