On 2 May 2017 9:57 p.m., "Brent Meeker" <meeke...@verizon.net> wrote:



On 5/2/2017 1:09 PM, David Nyman wrote:



On 2 May 2017 7:21 p.m., "Brent Meeker" <meeke...@verizon.net> wrote:



On 5/2/2017 1:01 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

Your answer seems to be that physics can be an illusion of digital thought,
therefore primary physics is otiose.  But thought can't be a consequence of
physics because....well you just don't see how it could be.


Not at all. It cannot be because you need to give a role to the primary
matter which is not emulable by the UD, nor FPI-recoverable.


The obvious "role" is that some things exist and some don't.  I don't know
anyone who calls this "primary matter", but it's what is not UD emulable.


But what are your grounds for discriminating which things exist and which
don't?


Empiricism.


That's a slogan not an explanation.



If anything, it strikes me that the history of human enquiry is rather
conducive to the view that whatever limits we try to impose on "what
exists" are in all likelihood destined soon to be surpassed.


Actually it has been the reverse.  Relativity places a limit on speed,
quantum mechanics places a limit on measurements, Goedel found a limit on
proofs.  Laplace was the last physicist who thought we could predict
everything.  We haven't been the center of the universe for a long time.


Very selective. What about the string landscape, eternal inflation or for
that matter the CUH? Maybe you'll say that these are as yet unproven
hypotheses, but are you willing to say in principle​ they're barking up the
wrong tree?



In any case, I still don't see that you've made a convincing argument for
your "groundless" circular explanations.


It's not an argument - it's an observation that that's the way explanations
work.


Not all explanations. And in particular not ontological ones.



For example, based on your remarks above, you implicitly exclude "non
physical" computations from your ontology (not forgetting what you said
about ontology being theory dependent).


Not at all.  I've never tried to make my "virtuous circle of explanation"
exhaustive.  I generally include "mathematics" in it, but just as indicator
for all kinds of abstract, symbolic based systems.


A theory explicitly based on a computational ontology includes both
physical and non physical. Of course you could go on to say that a physical
computer could compute anything computable; but in that case we find
ourselves at step 7 of the UDA and the putative physical machine then takes
on the aspect of Bruno's invisible horses. Unless you want to say that the
comp derivation of physics is thereby merely contingently impossible.


My reservation about that argument is Bruno argues as if all the UD has to
do is reach some state and it will have instantiated his (or someone's)
consciousness.  But then I ask myself, "Consciousness of what?"  He thinks
the external world is a kind of shared illusion of an equivalence class of
"consciousness" states.  This is like the Boltzmann brain paradox without
the solipism.  The reasonable way I can see such an equivalence class
having a non-zero measure is if the physics is computed - not just the
conscious perceptions of physics.  Then the physics and consciousness are
not different ontologically, they are just different ways of organizing the
states (like Bertrand Russell's neutral monism).


Is this really different from what comp implies? Surely the computation of
the physics and its appearance are indeed two different views of the same
thing - 3p and 1p plural? As we appeared to have agreed​ earlier, at the
point where physical computation and the substantive perception (aka
reality) with which it is entangled emerge in tandem, virtuous explanatory
equilibrium has been attained. But the difference in views is the key. The
former (aka 3p or in my parlance the view from nowhere) is the ontology and
the latter the epistemology it implies.


But this doesn't answer my empirical tequila test.  Bruno replied that the
(physical) tequila just interfered with the (physical) perception.  But in
that case the tequila would have no affect on mathematical reasoning - but
it does.


You lost me.

David



Brent

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